Midwife Licensure Exam The Midwife's Public Health Service Delivery — Immunization / EPI Delivery by the MidwifeExam Answer Templates

Examiner tip

This is a pure recall question. The answer is exactly four characters: +2°C to +8°C. Write it clearly and move on. No explanation is needed for a 1-mark VSA.

Model answer

+2°C to +8°C

Answer structure

• State the exact temperature range: +2°C to +8°C [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing only '2-8 degrees' without specifying Celsius or the + sign
• Confusing BHS storage temperature with frozen storage (-15°C to -25°C) used only at regional/provincial level
• Stating 'room temperature' — this is incorrect for any EPI vaccine

Key phrases to include

• +2°C to +8°C
• refrigerator
• BHS / health center level

Examiner tip

Examiners frequently confuse FEFO with FIFO to test attention to detail. Memorize: in EPI it is FEFO — expiry date drives the order, not the date of receipt.

Model answer

FEFO stands for First Expiry, First Out — vaccines with the nearest expiry date must be used first.

Answer structure

• Expand the acronym: First Expiry, First Out [½ mark]
• State the principle: use nearest-expiry vaccine first [½ mark — together these equal 1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing 'First In, First Out' (FIFO) — this is a common confusion; EPI uses FEFO, not FIFO
• Expanding the acronym but not explaining what it means in practice

Key phrases to include

• First Expiry, First Out
• nearest expiry date
• used first

Examiner tip

Remember the heat-sensitivity ranking: OPV (most) > BCG and Measles/MCV > other vaccines. The question specifically asks for 'most heat-sensitive' — the answer must be OPV.

Model answer

OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine) is the most heat-sensitive vaccine in the EPI program.

Answer structure

• State OPV (full name acceptable: Oral Polio Vaccine) [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Stating BCG or measles — these are also heat-sensitive but OPV is the MOST sensitive
• Writing 'all live vaccines' without specifying OPV as the most sensitive

Key phrases to include

• OPV
• Oral Polio Vaccine
• most heat-sensitive

Examiner tip

Two-mark questions expect two distinct pieces of information. Here: (1) both vaccine names and (2) the specific reason with the clinical mechanism. Vague answers like 'for protection' will not earn the second mark.

Model answer

The two vaccines given at birth are: (1) BCG vaccine and (2) Hepatitis B vaccine. The Hepatitis B birth dose must be given within 24 hours of birth to prevent mother-to-child (perinatal) transmission of Hepatitis B virus.

Answer structure

• Line 1: Name the two birth-dose vaccines — BCG and Hepatitis B [1 mark]
• Line 2: Explain the 24-hour rule for Hepatitis B — to prevent mother-to-child / perinatal transmission [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Naming only one birth dose vaccine instead of two
• Saying 'to prevent hepatitis B' without specifying mother-to-child / perinatal transmission — this is too vague for full marks
• Confusing 24 hours with 72 hours or 'within the first week'

Key phrases to include

• BCG
• Hepatitis B
• within 24 hours of birth
• mother-to-child transmission
• perinatal

Examiner tip

The key differentiator is TIMING, not the vaccines themselves. Both FIC and CIC receive the same vaccines; what differs is whether they completed them before or after the first birthday. Make the timing explicit in your answer.

Model answer

A Fully Immunized Child (FIC) is a child who has received all required EPI antigens BEFORE reaching 12 months of age. A Completely Immunized Child (CIC) is a child who received all the required doses but completed them AFTER the first birthday (between 12 and 23 months). FIC status is the program goal because on-time immunization provides protection during the highest-risk months of infancy.

Answer structure

• Line 1: Define FIC — all required antigens completed BEFORE 12 months [1 mark]
• Line 2: Define CIC — all required doses completed AFTER 12 months (12–23 months) [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Reversing the definitions — stating FIC is after 12 months
• Omitting the age boundary — writing 'all vaccines given' without specifying the timing criterion
• Confusing FIC with 'fully vaccinated' in a general sense without the 12-month cutoff

Key phrases to include

• Fully Immunized Child
• FIC
• before 12 months
• Completely Immunized Child
• CIC
• after the first birthday
• 12 to 23 months

Examiner tip

BCG has THREE unique features that examiners test: (1) intradermal route — the ONLY ID vaccine, (2) 0.05 mL — smallest dose in EPI, and (3) right upper arm — site-specific. A complete answer mentions all three.

Model answer

BCG vaccine is given via the INTRADERMAL (ID) route at a dose of 0.05 mL. The correct injection site is the RIGHT UPPER ARM (over the deltoid region). BCG is the only intradermal vaccine in the EPI schedule. A small wheal should appear upon injection, and a small scar is the expected outcome — this is NOT a sign of infection.

Answer structure

• State route: Intradermal (ID) + dose: 0.05 mL [1 mark]
• State site: Right upper arm / deltoid [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing subcutaneous or intramuscular instead of intradermal
• Stating the dose as 0.5 mL (confusing with IM vaccines) — BCG dose is 0.05 mL
• Not specifying RIGHT upper arm — just writing 'arm' is insufficient
• Calling the BCG scar an infection or complication

Key phrases to include

• intradermal
• ID
• 0.05 mL
• right upper arm
• deltoid
• wheal
• scar is expected

Examiner tip

Scenario questions test decision-making. Examiners want to see: (1) the CORRECT decision, (2) the REASON (EPI principle), and (3) the SPECIFIC APPLICATION (which vaccines). Always include all three layers.

Model answer

The midwife should PROCEED WITH IMMUNIZATION. Mild illness such as cough and colds is NOT a true contraindication to vaccination. The EPI program is clear: it is safe and effective to immunize a mildly sick child. Turning the child away would be a MISSED OPPORTUNITY for immunization, which could leave the child unprotected during a vulnerable period. The midwife should explain to the mother that the vaccines are safe to give alongside mild illness and that the child's condition will not worsen because of the vaccine. The child should receive all EPI vaccines due at 4 months of age (Pentavalent 2, OPV 2, and PCV 2).

Answer structure

• State the correct action: proceed with immunization [1 mark]
• Identify the principle: mild illness is NOT a contraindication / avoid missed opportunities [1 mark]
• State the specific vaccines due: Pentavalent 2, OPV 2, PCV 2 [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Saying the midwife should postpone or defer immunization — this is the WRONG action and earns zero marks
• Not stating the specific vaccines due — just saying 'give vaccines' is too vague
• Failing to mention the 'missed opportunity' concept or the EPI rationale

Key phrases to include

• proceed with immunization
• mild illness is NOT a contraindication
• missed opportunity
• safe and effective
• Pentavalent 2
• OPV 2
• PCV 2

Examiner tip

The shake test is ONLY for freeze-sensitive vaccines. A common examiner trap is asking about BCG or OPV — the shake test does not apply to them. Always connect the test to the correct vaccine category.

Model answer

The shake test is used to check if a freeze-sensitive vaccine has been accidentally frozen and damaged. It is used for: Hepatitis B, Pentavalent (DPT-HepB-Hib), PCV, IPV, and tetanus-containing vaccines (TT/Td) — vaccines that are destroyed by freezing. Procedure: Shake the suspected vial and a known good control vial simultaneously. Observe the sedimentation. Interpretation: A POSITIVE result (vaccine is damaged) occurs when flakes or sediment appear in the vial that settle FASTER than the control vial and CANNOT be resuspended by shaking. A positive shake test means the vaccine must be DISCARDED and not used on any child.

Answer structure

• State which vaccines the shake test is used for (freeze-sensitive vaccines) [1 mark]
• Describe the procedure: compare with a control vial, observe sedimentation [1 mark]
• Describe a positive result: flakes/sediment settle faster, cannot be resuspended → discard [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Applying the shake test to OPV or BCG — these are heat-sensitive, not freeze-sensitive
• Describing the test without mentioning the control vial comparison
• Failing to state that a positive result means the vaccine must be discarded

Key phrases to include

• freeze-sensitive
• shake test
• control vial
• flakes/sediment
• settle faster
• cannot be resuspended
• discard

Examiner tip

Remember the rule with a simple phrase: 'Square darker than ring = DISCARD.' Examiners test whether students know the action, not just the description of the VVM.

Model answer

The Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) is a heat-sensitive adhesive label attached directly to a vaccine vial. Its purpose is to indicate whether the vaccine has been exposed to excessive heat and may have lost potency. How to read it: The VVM has an INNER SQUARE surrounded by an OUTER RING. As the vaccine is exposed to heat over time, the inner square gradually darkens. The midwife must CHECK THE VVM BEFORE USE: (1) If the inner square is LIGHTER than the outer ring — the vaccine is SAFE to use. (2) If the inner square is AS DARK AS or DARKER THAN the outer ring — the vaccine has been damaged by heat and must be DISCARDED immediately. The VVM does not replace twice-daily temperature recording but provides an additional vaccine-specific safeguard.

Answer structure

• Define VVM and its purpose [1 mark]
• Describe how to read it: inner square vs. outer ring comparison [1 mark]
• State the action based on VVM status: use if lighter / discard if as dark or darker [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Confusing the VVM with a temperature log or thermometer
• Stating the vaccine is safe if the inner square is dark — this is backwards
• Not stating the action to take (use or discard) based on the reading

Key phrases to include

• Vaccine Vial Monitor
• VVM
• inner square
• outer ring
• heat-sensitive
• as dark as or darker
• discard
• check before use

Examiner tip

Five-mark case studies are marked in distinct parts. Structure your answer with clear headings for each vaccine. Examiners are looking for classification (freeze-sensitive vs. heat-sensitive), correct test for each, and the decisive action.

Model answer

ASSESSMENT OF PENTAVALENT VACCINE (Freeze-sensitive): The midwife performs the SHAKE TEST on the Pentavalent vial.

Procedure: She shakes the suspected Pentavalent vial and a known good (unaffected) control vial of Pentavalent simultaneously for 10–15 seconds. She then holds both vials upright side by side and observes sedimentation.

Interpretation and Action:

• If the suspected vial shows FLAKES or SEDIMENT that settle FASTER than the control vial and CANNOT be resuspended → POSITIVE shake test → The Pentavalent vaccine is DAMAGED and must be DISCARDED. It is NOT given to any child.
• If sedimentation in the suspected vial is the same as the control → Negative shake test → The vaccine may be used.

ASSESSMENT OF BCG VACCINE (Heat-sensitive, live-attenuated): BCG is a live-attenuated vaccine that is HEAT-sensitive, NOT freeze-sensitive. Freezing does NOT typically destroy BCG. Therefore, the shake test does NOT apply.

For BCG, the midwife should: (1) Check the VACCINE VIAL MONITOR (VVM) — if the inner square is as dark as or darker than the outer ring, discard. (2) Check the expiry date. (3) If BCG is already reconstituted, discard it and reconstitute a fresh vial (reconstituted BCG must be used within 4 hours). (4) If the VVM is acceptable and the vial is within expiry, the BCG may be used.

General Principle: Freeze-sensitive vaccines (HepB, Penta, PCV, IPV, TT/Td) are assessed using the shake test. Heat-sensitive live vaccines (OPV, BCG, MMR/MCV) are assessed using the VVM and visual inspection. The midwife must always check the refrigerator temperature chart and report the cold-chain failure to the RHU in-charge.

Answer structure

• Part 1 — Pentavalent: Identify it as freeze-sensitive and state shake test is indicated [1 mark]
• Part 1 — Pentavalent: Describe shake test procedure with control vial [1 mark]
• Part 1 — Pentavalent: State interpretation and action (positive = discard; negative = use) [1 mark]
• Part 2 — BCG: Identify it as heat-sensitive / live-attenuated and state shake test does NOT apply [1 mark]
• Part 2 — BCG: State correct assessment (VVM check, expiry, reconstitution status) and action [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Applying the shake test to BCG — this is a major conceptual error
• Failing to mention the control vial in the shake test procedure
• Not stating the action (use or discard) for each vaccine
• Omitting the VVM check for BCG
• Not addressing the reconstitution time limit for BCG (4 hours)

Key phrases to include

• freeze-sensitive
• shake test
• control vial
• flakes/sediment
• settle faster
• discard
• BCG is heat-sensitive not freeze-sensitive
• VVM
• inner square
• outer ring
• reconstituted BCG within 4 hours

Examiner tip

Present this in a clear table or organized list by age. Examiners reading many papers appreciate structure. The most commonly missed items are: IPV schedule, MCV2 at 12 months, and the subcutaneous route for MMR. Double-check these in your answer.

Model answer

COMPLETE DOH ROUTINE EPI SCHEDULE (Birth to 12 Months)

AT BIRTH:

• BCG: 0.05 mL, Intradermal (ID), Right upper arm (deltoid)
• Hepatitis B (birth dose): 0.5 mL, Intramuscular (IM), Anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis) — must be given within 24 hours of birth

AT 6 WEEKS:

• Pentavalent 1 (DPT-HepB-Hib): 0.5 mL, IM, Anterolateral thigh
• OPV 1 (Oral Polio Vaccine): 2 drops, Oral, Mouth
• PCV 1 (Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine): 0.5 mL, IM, Anterolateral thigh

AT 10 WEEKS:

• Pentavalent 2: 0.5 mL, IM, Anterolateral thigh
• OPV 2: 2 drops, Oral, Mouth
• PCV 2: 0.5 mL, IM, Anterolateral thigh

AT 14 WEEKS:

• Pentavalent 3: 0.5 mL, IM, Anterolateral thigh
• OPV 3: 2 drops, Oral, Mouth
• PCV 3: 0.5 mL, IM, Anterolateral thigh
• IPV 1 (Inactivated Polio Vaccine): 0.5 mL, IM, Anterolateral thigh

AT 9 MONTHS:

• MCV1 / MMR 1 (Measles-containing vaccine): 0.5 mL, Subcutaneous (SC), Upper outer arm
• IPV 2: 0.5 mL, IM, Anterolateral thigh

AT 12 MONTHS:

• MCV2 / MMR 2: 0.5 mL, Subcutaneous (SC), Upper outer arm

KEY NOTES:

1. The Pentavalent vaccine contains DPT + HepB + Hib in a single injection.
2. BCG is the ONLY intradermal vaccine; MMR/MCV is given subcutaneously.
3. All IM vaccines in infants go to the anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis), NEVER the buttock.
4. Two doses of measles-containing vaccine are required because a single dose does not seroconvert every child.

Answer structure

• Birth doses (BCG + HepB) with correct routes and sites [1 mark]
• 6-week, 10-week, 14-week schedule (Penta, OPV, PCV series + IPV1 at 14 weeks) [2 marks]
• 9-month and 12-month schedule (MCV1, IPV2 at 9 months; MCV2 at 12 months) [1 mark]
• Correct routes and sites for all vaccines (intradermal for BCG, SC for MMR, IM for all others, anterolateral thigh for IM, right upper arm for BCG) [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Missing IPV1 at 14 weeks or IPV2 at 9 months — this is a common omission
• Missing MCV2 at 12 months — students often stop at 9 months
• Stating MMR/MCV as intramuscular instead of subcutaneous
• Writing 'thigh' without specifying ANTEROLATERAL thigh (vastus lateralis)
• Omitting the Hepatitis B birth-dose time limit (within 24 hours)

Key phrases to include

• BCG
• Hepatitis B
• within 24 hours
• Pentavalent
• OPV
• PCV
• IPV1 at 14 weeks
• IPV2 at 9 months
• MCV1 at 9 months
• MCV2 at 12 months
• intradermal
• subcutaneous
• anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis)
• right upper arm

Examiner tip

The EPI program has very few true contraindications. If your answer includes fever, malnutrition, or mild illness, you are listing FALSE contraindications — a conceptual error that examiners heavily penalize.

Model answer

True contraindications to immunization under the EPI program are:

1. ANAPHYLAXIS to a previous dose of the same vaccine or to a vaccine component (e.g., a child who developed anaphylactic shock after a dose of Pentavalent should not receive further pertussis-containing vaccines).
2. PREVIOUS SEVERE NEUROLOGICAL REACTION to DPT/Pentavalent vaccine — specifically encephalopathy occurring within 7 days of a prior dose; further pertussis-containing doses should not be given.
3. BCG is contraindicated in a child with CLINICAL SIGNS OF AIDS / SYMPTOMATIC HIV INFECTION — because BCG is a live-attenuated vaccine that can disseminate in a severely immunocompromised child.

(Note: Asymptomatic HIV-positive children may still receive BCG according to DOH protocol; the contraindication is for symptomatic/clinical AIDS.)

Answer structure

• Contraindication 1: Anaphylaxis to a previous dose or vaccine component [1 mark]
• Contraindication 2: Previous severe neurological reaction (encephalopathy) to DPT/Pentavalent [1 mark]
• Contraindication 3: Clinical AIDS / symptomatic HIV for BCG (live vaccine in immunocompromised host) [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Listing mild fever, cough, colds, or malnutrition as contraindications — these are FALSE contraindications
• Saying 'allergy' without specifying anaphylaxis — mild allergic reactions are not a contraindication
• Writing 'HIV positive' without specifying symptomatic/clinical AIDS — asymptomatic HIV is NOT a BCG contraindication

Key phrases to include

• anaphylaxis
• previous dose
• encephalopathy
• DPT/Pentavalent
• clinical AIDS
• symptomatic HIV
• live vaccine
• immunocompromised

Examiner tip

The phrase 'NEVER RESTART the series' is almost always worth at least one mark in defaulter tracking questions. Make it prominent and clear in your answer.

Model answer

DEFAULTER TRACKING is the systematic process of identifying children who have missed a scheduled immunization dose and actively following them up to complete the immunization series.

Midwife's Role:

1. IDENTIFICATION: The midwife uses the TARGET CLIENT LIST (TCL) for immunization and the FHSIS (Field Health Services Information System) to identify children who did not come for their scheduled vaccine dose.
2. FOLLOW-UP ACTION: She conducts HOME VISITS to defaulter families, often with the help of Barangay Health Workers (BHW), to remind parents and bring children back to the BHS for their missed dose.
3. COMPLETING THE SERIES: When the defaulter returns, the midwife continues the immunization from WHERE IT WAS LEFT OFF. The series is NEVER RESTARTED from the beginning, regardless of how much time has passed.
4. RECORDING: All completed doses are recorded on the child's IMMUNIZATION CARD and on the TCL.

Answer structure

• Define defaulter tracking [1 mark]
• Describe identification tool (TCL/FHSIS) and follow-up action (home visits, BHW) [1 mark]
• State the key principle: continue (never restart) the series + record completed doses [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Saying the immunization series should be restarted from the beginning — this is incorrect EPI policy
• Not mentioning the specific recording tools (TCL, FHSIS, immunization card)
• Describing defaulter tracking only as calling the family without mentioning home visits or BHW coordination

Key phrases to include

• defaulter tracking
• Target Client List (TCL)
• FHSIS
• home visits
• Barangay Health Workers
• never restart the series
• continue from where left off
• immunization card

Examiner tip

This question tests safety knowledge. Two key words earn marks: SCIATIC NERVE (why not buttock) and VASTUS LATERALIS (correct site). Memorize both as a pair.

Model answer

Intramuscular injections in infants should NEVER be given in the buttock (gluteal muscle) for two reasons: (1) Risk of SCIATIC NERVE INJURY — the sciatic nerve runs close to the surface in the infant's underdeveloped gluteal region, and an injection in this area can cause permanent nerve damage and paralysis. (2) The gluteal muscle in infants has MORE SUBCUTANEOUS FAT and LESS MUSCLE MASS, which impairs vaccine absorption and reduces immunogenicity.

CORRECT SITE: The ANTEROLATERAL THIGH (vastus lateralis muscle) is the preferred IM site in infants. It is the largest muscle mass available in young infants, has less overlying fat, has no major nerves or blood vessels at risk, and provides reliable vaccine absorption.

Answer structure

• State TWO reasons to avoid the buttock: sciatic nerve injury risk + poor absorption due to fat [1 mark]
• State the correct site (anterolateral thigh / vastus lateralis) and the reason it is preferred [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Stating only 'nerve damage' without identifying the specific nerve (sciatic nerve)
• Writing 'deltoid' as the IM site for infants — deltoid is too small for infants; anterolateral thigh is correct
• Not providing a reason for the preferred site, only naming it

Key phrases to include

• sciatic nerve injury
• gluteal muscle
• excessive subcutaneous fat
• impaired absorption
• anterolateral thigh
• vastus lateralis
• largest muscle mass in infants

Examiner tip

Five-mark questions on cold chain must cover ALL dimensions: temperature, shelf placement, storage rules, reconstitution, and failure response. Write with clear numbered headings to ensure you address each dimension and make it easy for the examiner to award marks.

Model answer

VACCINE REFRIGERATOR MANAGEMENT AT THE BHS

1. TEMPERATURE RANGE AND MONITORING:

All vaccines at the BHS are stored at +2°C to +8°C. The midwife must place a thermometer INSIDE the refrigerator and record the temperature TWICE DAILY — once in the morning and once in the afternoon — on a temperature monitoring chart (cold-chain monitoring form). This allows early detection of cold-chain breaks.

2. SHELF PLACEMENT:

Shelf position is based on the vaccine's sensitivity:

• TOP SHELF / NEAR FREEZER COMPARTMENT: Heat-sensitive vaccines — OPV (most heat-sensitive), BCG, and Measles/MCV/MMR. These are placed closest to the cooling source to stay coldest.
• MIDDLE AND LOWER SHELVES: Freeze-sensitive vaccines — Hepatitis B, Pentavalent (DPT-HepB-Hib), PCV, IPV, and Tetanus-containing vaccines (TT/Td). These must NEVER be frozen.
• REFRIGERATOR DOOR: NO vaccines should be stored in the door — temperature there fluctuates most with opening and closing.

3. STORAGE RULES (CRITICAL):

• Vaccines ONLY in the refrigerator — NO FOOD, NO DRINKS. Food and drinks introduce warm air and contamination.
• Ice packs and water bottles may be placed inside to stabilize temperature during power outages.
• Reconstituted BCG must be used within 4 HOURS; reconstituted Measles/MMR must be used within 6 HOURS. Any remaining reconstituted vaccine is DISCARDED at end of session.
• Apply FEFO (First Expiry, First Out) — always use the vial nearest to expiry first.
• Check the VVM (Vaccine Vial Monitor) on every vial before use. Discard if the inner square is as dark as or darker than the outer ring.
• Use auto-disable (AD) syringes for every injection — one syringe per child, no recapping.

4. RESPONSE TO COLD-CHAIN FAILURE:

If a cold-chain break is suspected (temperature out of range, suspected freezing), the midwife must: (1) Quarantine the affected vaccines. (2) Perform the shake test on freeze-sensitive vaccines. (3) Check VVMs. (4) Report immediately to the RHU health officer for guidance on vaccine disposal and replacement.

Answer structure

• Temperature: +2°C to +8°C + twice-daily monitoring [1 mark]
• Shelf placement: heat-sensitive near freezer (OPV, BCG, MCV); freeze-sensitive on middle/lower shelves; no vaccines in door [1 mark]
• Storage rules: vaccines only, no food; FEFO; VVM check [1 mark]
• Reconstitution time limits: BCG 4 hours, MMR 6 hours; discard remainder [1 mark]
• Cold-chain failure response: quarantine, shake test, VVM, report to RHU [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Mixing up shelf positions (placing Penta near freezer) — this is a critical cold-chain error
• Omitting the reconstitution time limits for BCG (4h) and MMR (6h)
• Not mentioning FEFO or VVM — these are standard cold-chain terms expected in any full answer
• Failing to describe a response protocol for cold-chain failure

Key phrases to include

• +2°C to +8°C
• twice daily
• top shelf near freezer
• heat-sensitive
• OPV
• freeze-sensitive
• middle/lower shelves
• no food or drinks
• FEFO
• VVM
• BCG 4 hours
• MMR 6 hours
• discard reconstituted vaccine
• shake test
• report to RHU

Do

• Write the exact DOH/EPI terminology (+2°C to +8°C, FEFO, OPV, VVM)
• Answer in one crisp sentence or phrase
• Include units where relevant (e.g., mL, drops, °C)
• Move on quickly — do not over-explain

Don't

• Do not write long paragraphs for a 1-mark question
• Do not hedge your answer with 'I think' or 'maybe'
• Do not confuse acronyms (FEFO vs FIFO, FIC vs CIC, ID vs IM)

Do

• Number your two points (1. and 2.) to make them visually distinct
• Include BOTH the name AND the explanation (e.g., route AND site)
• Use EPI-specific terms that signal subject mastery
• If comparing two concepts (FIC vs CIC), use a side-by-side structure

Don't

• Do not write three or four points hoping one will earn the mark — quality over quantity
• Do not repeat the same idea twice in different words
• Do not omit the time-specific boundaries for schedule questions (e.g., within 24 hours)

Do

• Use a clear structure: Define → Explain → Apply, or Point 1 → Point 2 → Point 3
• Include both the EPI principle AND the clinical application in scenario questions
• Name specific vaccines, tools (TCL, VVM), and programs (FHSIS) to show depth
• For scenario questions: State the decision, the reason, and the specific action

Don't

• Do not write a wall of text — use brief, clear sentences
• Do not list items without any explanation when the question asks to 'describe' or 'explain'
• Do not confuse true contraindications with false contraindications — a common 3-mark trap

Do

• Use NUMBERED HEADINGS or BOLD LABELS to organize your answer (e.g., 1. Temperature, 2. Shelf Placement)
• Include a brief introductory statement to orient the examiner
• For schedule questions, use a TABLE format — faster to write and easier to mark
• End with a KEY NOTES section for high-yield points that may carry bonus credit
• Check that you have covered every sub-topic in the question before moving on

Don't

• Do not write a single long paragraph without structure — examiners cannot easily award marks
• Do not repeat information from one section to another to make the answer look longer
• Do not omit the 'action' or 'conclusion' step in procedure-based questions
• Do not run out of time — allocate 12–15 minutes strictly and keep to it