Midwife Licensure Exam The Midwife's Public Health Service Delivery — Prenatal Home-Based and Postnatal Home CareExam Answer Templates

Examiner tip

This is a recall question. The exact phrase 'prevent the spread of infection' mirrors the textbook principle — use it verbatim for maximum certainty.

Model answer

The primary purpose of bag technique is to prevent the spread of infection between the midwife, the client, and the home environment, keeping the inside of the public health bag clean at all times.

Answer structure

• Line 1: State the core purpose — prevent spread of infection / maintain cleanliness of the bag [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing 'organize the bag' as the primary purpose — organization is a secondary benefit, not the primary purpose
• Vague answer such as 'to keep things clean' without specifying infection prevention
• Leaving the answer blank thinking it is too simple

Key phrases to include

• prevent the spread of infection
• inside of the bag kept clean
• minimize contamination

Examiner tip

MLE favors the DOH standard of 4 visits. Bonus points if you note the WHO recommendation of 8 contacts as additional information, but always anchor your answer to the DOH standard.

Model answer

The DOH recommends a minimum of FOUR (4) antenatal care visits. The schedule is: 1st visit — first trimester (as early as possible); 2nd visit — second trimester; 3rd and 4th visits — third trimester.

Answer structure

• Part 1: State the minimum number — at least 4 ANC visits [1 mark]
• Part 2: State the correct trimester timing for all four visits [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Stating only the number without the timing earns only 1 mark
• Writing '8 contacts' only — this is the newer WHO model, not the current DOH standard being tested; write both for completeness but clearly label which is DOH
• Incorrect trimester placement, e.g., putting all visits in the third trimester

Key phrases to include

• minimum of four (4) ANC visits
• first trimester
• second trimester
• third trimester (twice)

Examiner tip

There are at least 10 accepted danger signs of pregnancy. When asked for any four, choose the most classic ones: vaginal bleeding, severe headache/blurred vision, edema, and convulsions — these are the highest-yield on the MLE.

Model answer

Four danger signs of pregnancy are: (1) Vaginal bleeding; (2) Severe headache or blurring of vision; (3) Swelling of the face and hands (edema); (4) Convulsions or fits. Any of these signs requires immediate referral to a BEmONC or CEmONC facility.

Answer structure

• List 4 correct danger signs — 0.5 mark each, or award 1 mark per complete pair [2 marks total]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Listing vague signs like 'pain' without specifying 'severe abdominal or epigastric pain'
• Writing signs of labor (e.g., contractions) instead of danger signs
• Not earning the referral action — in a 3-mark or higher version, omitting referral loses a mark

Key phrases to include

• vaginal bleeding
• severe headache
• blurring of vision
• swelling of face and hands
• convulsions
• high fever
• decreased fetal movement
• referral

Examiner tip

The phrase 'three delays' is a high-yield trigger term for MLE. Whenever birth plans are mentioned, connect them to defeating the three delays for automatic examiner recognition.

Model answer

A birth plan is a written agreement made with the pregnant woman and her family during prenatal care that prepares them for delivery and emergencies in advance. It is essential because it directly addresses the 'three delays' by ensuring that the place of delivery (a BEmONC-capable facility), the skilled birth attendant, transport, funds, a birth companion, and an identified blood donor are all decided before labor begins.

Answer structure

• Sentence 1: Define birth plan — written advance plan/agreement with woman and family [1 mark]
• Sentence 2: Explain its importance — addresses three delays, ensures preparedness [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Describing only the contents of the birth plan without explaining its importance
• Not mentioning 'three delays' — this is a key concept examiners look for
• Confusing birth plan with the birth certificate

Key phrases to include

• written plan
• advance preparation
• three delays
• skilled birth attendant
• BEmONC-capable facility
• transport
• blood donor

Examiner tip

Examiners specifically test the blood donor component because many students forget it. Always include it in birth plan answers.

Model answer

A birth plan must include: (1) Place of delivery — a BEmONC-capable health facility (never a home birth with a traditional birth attendant); (2) Transport arrangement and a backup plan for reaching the facility; (3) Identified blood donor in case blood transfusion is needed. Other required components include: named skilled birth attendant, designated birth companion, and savings/funds set aside for delivery and emergency expenses.

Answer structure

• Point 1: Place of delivery — facility with skilled birth attendant [1 mark]
• Point 2: Transport plan [1 mark]
• Point 3: Blood donor / funds / companion (any one additional valid component) [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Listing 'hospital' without specifying BEmONC-capable or skilled birth attendant
• Forgetting the blood donor — this is a frequently tested component
• Including traditional birth attendant as an option for birth attendant — this contradicts DOH policy and may result in mark deduction

Key phrases to include

• BEmONC-capable facility
• skilled birth attendant
• transport
• blood donor
• birth companion
• savings/funds
• no traditional birth attendant

Examiner tip

Sequence is everything in bag technique questions. Write your answer as numbered steps, not a paragraph, so examiners can clearly follow the order and award each step mark.

Model answer

Upon arriving at the client's home, the midwife follows these steps: (1) Place the public health bag on a clean, flat surface; if no clean surface is available, use the bag's own clean lining or a clean paper as a barrier before setting the bag down. (2) Open the bag and remove the paper lining to create a clean working field; take out hand-washing articles (soap dish and personal towel). (3) Wash hands thoroughly and dry with the personal towel from the bag. Only after hand washing may articles be removed for the procedure. The inside of the bag must remain clean and must never be touched with unwashed or contaminated hands.

Answer structure

• Step 1: Place bag on clean surface or its own lining/clean paper [1 mark]
• Step 2: Open bag, remove paper lining to create clean field and take out hand-washing articles [1 mark]
• Step 3: Wash hands thoroughly before removing any other articles; keep inside of bag clean [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Reversing the order — placing articles before washing hands
• Omitting the step of using the bag's lining when no clean surface is available
• Not stating that the inside of the bag must remain clean — this is the governing principle

Key phrases to include

• clean flat surface
• bag's own lining
• clean working field
• wash hands thoroughly
• personal towel
• inside of the bag kept clean
• before removing articles

Examiner tip

The prenatal package is a list question — present it as numbered items. Examiners scan for specific keywords like 'every visit' for BP and '2nd/3rd trimester' for deworming.

Model answer

The prenatal care package delivered during home-based ANC visits includes: (1) History-taking and risk assessment (LMP, EDD, obstetric history, medical conditions); (2) Physical assessment — weight, blood pressure at every visit, fundal height measurement, fetal heart tones, and Leopold's maneuvers in the third trimester; (3) Tetanus/Td immunization following the five-dose schedule; (4) Micronutrient supplementation — iron with folic acid daily, calcium, iodine, and deworming in the 2nd or 3rd trimester; (5) Health teaching on danger signs of pregnancy, nutrition, rest, and breastfeeding preparation.

Answer structure

• Items 1-2: History + physical assessment [1 mark]
• Items 3-4: Immunization + supplementation/deworming [1 mark]
• Item 5: Health teaching / danger signs / birth plan [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Omitting that blood pressure is checked at EVERY visit — this is a specific and testable detail
• Writing 'tetanus vaccine' without noting the five-dose schedule
• Missing deworming — a commonly forgotten component

Key phrases to include

• blood pressure at every visit
• fundal height
• fetal heart tones
• TT/Td immunization
• iron with folic acid
• calcium supplementation
• deworming — 2nd or 3rd trimester
• danger signs
• birth plan

Examiner tip

Memorize the postpartum schedule as: 24 hours → Day 7 → 6 weeks. This triplet is directly testable on the MLE.

Model answer

The DOH recommends at least TWO postpartum check-ups: (1) First visit — within 24 hours after delivery; (2) Second visit — approximately on the 7th day (one week) postpartum. An additional visit is recommended at around 6 weeks postpartum. These visits ensure early detection of postpartum complications in both the mother and the newborn.

Answer structure

• Part 1: State the minimum number (at least 2) and timing of first visit (within 24 hours) [1 mark]
• Part 2: State timing of second visit (7th day) and mention 6-week visit [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing 'day 1' instead of 'within 24 hours' — be specific
• Omitting the 6-week visit entirely
• Confusing the newborn screening timing with the postnatal visit schedule

Key phrases to include

• at least two postpartum check-ups
• within 24 hours
• 7th day / one week postpartum
• 6 weeks postpartum

Examiner tip

Close every danger-signs answer with 'refer immediately to a BEmONC/CEmONC facility' — this shows the examiner you understand the midwife's scope: detect and refer, not manage complications.

Model answer

Five postpartum danger signs requiring immediate referral are: (1) Heavy vaginal bleeding (hemorrhage); (2) Foul-smelling lochia; (3) High fever (signs of infection/sepsis); (4) Severe headache or blurring of vision (may indicate postpartum eclampsia); (5) Convulsions. Other danger signs include: painful, red, swollen breast (mastitis), calf pain or leg swelling (thromboembolism), difficulty breathing, and signs of severe postpartum depression. Each of these is a referral trigger — the midwife arranges immediate transport to a BEmONC or CEmONC facility.

Answer structure

• Signs 1-2: Hemorrhage and foul-smelling lochia [1 mark]
• Signs 3-4: Fever and severe headache/blurred vision [1 mark]
• Sign 5: Convulsions (plus referral action stated) [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Listing normal lochia color changes as danger signs — only foul smell or excessive amount is a danger sign
• Not stating the referral action — in a 3-mark question, the midwife's response is expected
• Confusing prenatal danger signs with postpartum danger signs

Key phrases to include

• heavy vaginal bleeding
• foul-smelling lochia
• high fever
• severe headache
• blurring of vision
• convulsions
• refer immediately
• BEmONC/CEmONC facility

Examiner tip

The specific threshold of 60 breaths per minute for fast breathing is a high-yield MLE detail. Always include the number — 'fast breathing' alone is too vague for full marks.

Model answer

Five newborn danger signs requiring immediate referral are: (1) Not feeding or poor feeding; (2) Convulsions or fits; (3) Fast breathing — 60 breaths per minute or more — or severe chest indrawing; (4) Fever (hot to touch) or hypothermia (cold to touch); (5) Jaundice of the palms and soles (yellow discoloration extending to the extremities). Other danger signs include: no movement even when stimulated, redness or pus around the cord or eyes, and abdominal distension. The midwife must arrange immediate transport to a BEmONC or CEmONC facility for any of these signs.

Answer structure

• Signs 1-2: Not feeding and convulsions [1 mark]
• Signs 3-4: Fast breathing (60/min) and fever/hypothermia [1 mark]
• Sign 5: Jaundice of palms and soles (plus referral action) [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing 'jaundice' without specifying 'palms and soles' — physiologic jaundice of the face in first days is normal; pathologic jaundice reaching palms/soles is the danger sign
• Not stating the specific breathing rate threshold of 60 breaths per minute
• Confusing newborn danger signs with maternal danger signs

Key phrases to include

• not feeding
• convulsions
• fast breathing — 60 breaths per minute or more
• severe chest indrawing
• fever or hypothermia
• yellow palms and soles
• no movement when stimulated
• redness or pus around cord or eyes
• refer immediately

Examiner tip

The '24-hour minimum' rule for newborn screening is a classic MLE trick question. Examiners may present a scenario where screening was done at 20 hours and ask if this is correct — the answer is NO.

Model answer

The newborn screening (Expanded Newborn Screening) heel-prick blood sample is collected between 24 and 72 hours of life — not before 24 hours, as early collection may give false results. It screens for congenital and metabolic conditions that, if undetected and untreated, can cause intellectual disability, serious illness, or death. In addition, newborn hearing screening is performed before discharge.

Answer structure

• Part 1: State the correct window — 24 to 72 hours of life, NOT before 24 hours [1 mark]
• Part 2: State the purpose — screening for congenital/metabolic conditions [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing 'at birth' or 'immediately after delivery' — collecting before 24 hours gives false results
• Omitting the 'not before 24 hours' caveat
• Confusing newborn screening with hepatitis B birth dose timing

Key phrases to include

• 24 to 72 hours of life
• not before 24 hours
• Expanded Newborn Screening
• heel-prick
• congenital and metabolic conditions
• newborn hearing screening

Examiner tip

Case studies test your clinical judgment AND your knowledge of scope. Always: (1) name each danger sign, (2) explain why it is dangerous, (3) state REFER IMMEDIATELY, (4) describe supportive steps, and (5) mention documentation. This five-part structure maximizes marks in 5-mark case studies.

Model answer

Assessment: The midwife has identified THREE danger signs in this scenario — two in the newborn and one in the mother — that require immediate action. Newborn findings: (1) Jaundice extending to the palms and soles is a NEWBORN DANGER SIGN indicating pathologic (severe) jaundice, which can cause brain damage (kernicterus) if not treated promptly. (2) A respiratory rate of 68 breaths per minute exceeds the danger threshold of 60 breaths per minute and constitutes FAST BREATHING, another newborn danger sign suggesting respiratory distress or infection. Maternal finding: (3) Foul-smelling lochia is a POSTPARTUM DANGER SIGN suggesting uterine infection (endometritis/postpartum sepsis), which can be life-threatening. Midwife's action — REFER IMMEDIATELY: The midwife must NOT attempt to manage any of these conditions at home. She must: (a) Inform the mother and family clearly and calmly about the findings; (b) Keep the newborn warm (prevent hypothermia) and encourage the mother to continue breastfeeding if the baby can feed during transport; (c) Arrange immediate transport to the nearest BEmONC or CEmONC facility; (d) Accompany or coordinate with the barangay for emergency transport if needed; (e) Document all findings on the mother-and-child record and the TCL/FHSIS before or during transport. Rationale: The midwife's scope under RA 7392 is to provide normal maternity and newborn care, recognize complications, and refer. She detects these danger signs early — which is her critical contribution — and ensures the family reaches definitive care without delay.

Answer structure

• Part 1: Identify all danger signs correctly — jaundice of palms/soles, fast breathing (68/min), foul lochia [2 marks]
• Part 2: State the immediate action — refer to BEmONC/CEmONC, do not attempt home management [1 mark]
• Part 3: Describe supportive steps — warmth, breastfeeding support, inform family, arrange transport [1 mark]
• Part 4: State documentation requirement — TCL/FHSIS recording [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Missing one of the three danger signs — read case studies carefully for ALL abnormal findings
• Writing a treatment plan (antibiotics, phototherapy) — the midwife detects and refers, she does not prescribe or manage complications
• Not mentioning documentation — this is always expected in a public health midwifery answer
• Stating 'monitor at home and return tomorrow' — this is inappropriate for clear danger signs
• Correctly identifying danger signs but not connecting them to immediate referral action

Key phrases to include

• danger sign
• pathologic jaundice
• palms and soles
• fast breathing — 68 breaths per minute exceeds threshold of 60
• foul-smelling lochia — postpartum infection
• immediate referral
• BEmONC/CEmONC facility
• do not manage at home
• keep newborn warm
• TCL/FHSIS documentation
• RA 7392 scope — detect and refer

Examiner tip

TCL and FHSIS questions reward students who connect documentation to public health outcomes. Always link recording to 'tracking defaulters and MNCHN monitoring' for full marks.

Model answer

The Target Client List (TCL) is the midwife's tracking tool that lists all eligible clients — including pregnant women and postpartum mothers — in a barangay. The midwife records every home visit, ANC contact, immunization, and postnatal check on the TCL. The FHSIS (Field Health Services Information System) is the national DOH recording and reporting system into which TCL data feeds. Together they serve three critical functions in home-based care: (1) Tracking who is due for a visit and who has defaulted, enabling the midwife to follow up promptly; (2) Ensuring complete documentation of the continuum of care from prenatal to postnatal; (3) Generating maternal and neonatal health indicators at the RHU, municipal, and national level to measure the success of the MNCHN strategy.

Answer structure

• Sentence 1: Define TCL and its purpose in tracking clients [1 mark]
• Sentence 2: Define FHSIS and how TCL data feeds into it [1 mark]
• Sentence 3: State the three functions — tracking defaulters, documentation of continuum, generating MNCHN indicators [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Defining TCL as a 'patient chart' — it is a community-level tracking list, not an individual chart
• Omitting the function of tracking defaulters — this is the most important practical use
• Not linking TCL/FHSIS to the broader MNCHN strategy

Key phrases to include

• Target Client List (TCL)
• FHSIS
• tracking defaulters
• follow-up
• documentation of continuum of care
• MNCHN indicators
• national reporting

Examiner tip

In a 5-mark long-answer question, each practice should be a mini-paragraph: name the practice, describe what the midwife does, and state the danger sign or referral trigger. This structure ensures you earn all available marks.

Model answer

During postnatal home visits, the midwife assesses and supports the following essential newborn care practices: (1) EXCLUSIVE BREASTFEEDING ON DEMAND: The midwife assesses proper latch and positioning, checks for adequate output (at least 6 wet diapers per day), and counsels the mother on feeding frequency (every 2-3 hours or on demand). Exclusive breastfeeding — no other food or water — for the first 6 months is promoted per EINC/Unang Yakap and DOH policy. Any difficulty with breastfeeding is addressed at every visit. (2) CORD CARE: The cord stump must be kept CLEAN AND DRY. The midwife teaches the family not to apply substances (alcohol, herbs, powder) and to fold the diaper below the cord. Danger signs of cord infection — redness, swelling, discharge, or foul smell around the cord — require immediate referral. (3) PREVENTION OF HYPOTHERMIA AND WARMTH: The newborn is highly susceptible to cold stress. The midwife teaches skin-to-skin (kangaroo) care, proper clothing and covering, and avoidance of bathing too early. Room temperature is assessed. For low-birth-weight babies, kangaroo mother care is specifically promoted. (4) NEWBORN SCREENING AND IMMUNIZATION CONFIRMATION: The midwife confirms that the heel-prick blood sample (Expanded Newborn Screening) was collected between 24-72 hours of life and that newborn hearing screening was performed. She also verifies that the BCG vaccine and Hepatitis B birth dose were administered and sets the EPI schedule for subsequent immunizations. Weight and growth monitoring at each visit completes the assessment.

Answer structure

• Practice 1: Exclusive breastfeeding — assess latch, demand feeding, no other food/water [1 mark]
• Practice 2: Cord care — clean and dry, no substances, danger signs of infection [1 mark]
• Practice 3: Warmth — skin-to-skin/kangaroo care, clothing, hypothermia prevention [1 mark]
• Practice 4: Newborn screening (24-72 hrs heel prick) and immunization (BCG, Hep B birth dose, EPI schedule) [1 mark]
• Overall coherence, EINC/Unang Yakap reference, and danger-sign integration [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Describing practices without explaining the midwife's assessment role — the question asks what the midwife assesses and supports
• Omitting EINC/Unang Yakap — this is the Philippine policy framework for newborn care
• Writing 'apply alcohol to cord' — this is incorrect; clean and dry is the standard
• Not mentioning the specific 24-72 hour window for newborn screening
• Missing the EPI schedule component of immunization confirmation

Key phrases to include

• exclusive breastfeeding on demand
• EINC/Unang Yakap
• clean and dry cord care
• no substances on cord
• skin-to-skin / kangaroo care
• hypothermia prevention
• Expanded Newborn Screening — 24 to 72 hours
• BCG and Hepatitis B birth dose
• EPI schedule
• referral for danger signs

Examiner tip

For 5-mark assessment questions, use a systems-based or head-to-toe approach and label each area clearly. Examiners are looking for breadth (all systems covered) and depth (knowing normal vs. abnormal for each).

Model answer

During a postnatal home visit, the midwife performs a systematic assessment of the postpartum mother covering the following areas: (1) VITAL SIGNS: Blood pressure, temperature, pulse, and respiratory rate. An elevated temperature (fever) is an early sign of postpartum infection. Abnormal vital signs are referral triggers. (2) UTERINE INVOLUTION: The midwife palpates the fundus to assess firmness and position. The fundus should be firm (contracted) and should descend approximately 1 cm per day after delivery. A soft (boggy) uterus suggests subinvolution, which may indicate retained products or infection — a referral trigger. (3) LOCHIA: The amount, color, and odor of the vaginal discharge are assessed. Normal progression is lochia rubra (days 1-3, red), serosa (days 4-9, pinkish-brown), and alba (day 10 onward, yellowish-white). Heavy bleeding or foul-smelling lochia is abnormal and requires immediate referral. (4) PERINEUM AND WOUND: The midwife assesses healing of any laceration or episiotomy — signs of redness, edema, bruising, discharge, or dehiscence require referral. (5) BREASTFEEDING AND BREASTS: Support for exclusive breastfeeding, assessment for engorgement, cracked nipples, or mastitis (painful, red, hard area with fever) — mastitis requires referral. (6) EMOTIONAL AND PSYCHOLOGICAL STATE: Screen for postpartum blues vs. postpartum depression. Prolonged sadness, inability to care for the baby, or thoughts of self-harm require urgent referral and support. (7) FAMILY PLANNING COUNSELING: The midwife counsels the mother on appropriate postpartum family planning methods, emphasizing that LAM (Lactational Amenorrhea Method) is effective only with exclusive breastfeeding, amenorrhea, and infant under 6 months. Iron supplementation is continued.

Answer structure

• Area 1: Vital signs — temperature for infection, BP, PR [1 mark]
• Area 2: Uterine involution and lochia assessment (normal vs. abnormal) [1 mark]
• Area 3: Perineum/wound healing and breastfeeding/breast assessment [1 mark]
• Area 4: Psychological screening and family planning counseling [1 mark]
• Overall structure, referral triggers identified, iron supplementation mentioned [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Omitting lochia color progression (rubra-serosa-alba) — examiners reward this specific detail
• Not identifying referral triggers for each system — a complete answer always links abnormal findings to referral
• Forgetting postpartum depression screening — this is increasingly tested on the MLE
• Not mentioning continued iron supplementation postpartum

Key phrases to include

• vital signs — temperature
• uterine involution — firm and descending
• lochia — amount, color, odor
• lochia rubra, serosa, alba
• perineum/episiotomy healing
• exclusive breastfeeding support
• mastitis — refer
• postpartum depression screening
• family planning counseling
• iron supplementation continued
• referral triggers

Do

• Use the exact phrase from DOH/WHO guidelines (e.g., 'prevent the spread of infection')
• Be direct — state the answer in the first sentence
• Include a specific number, timing, or threshold if the question is about a schedule or criterion
• Write legibly — 1-mark answers should be clear and immediate

Don't

• Do not write a long paragraph — examiners expect a concise answer
• Do not waste time with background information
• Do not second-guess yourself on recall questions — go with the first answer that matches the exact guideline
• Do not use vague terms like 'sometimes' or 'usually' for facts that have definite answers

Do

• Divide your answer into two clearly distinct parts corresponding to two marks
• Include specific details: timing (within 24 hours, 7th day), thresholds (60 breaths/min), and Philippine context (BEmONC, TCL)
• If listing items, number them clearly so the examiner can count
• Close with the midwife's action (refer to BEmONC) if the question involves a danger sign or complication

Don't

• Do not write only one point and expect full marks
• Do not write more than 4 sentences — you will waste time needed for harder questions
• Do not leave the second part vague while the first is detailed
• Do not confuse DOH standard with WHO recommendation without labeling which is which

Do

• Use numbered or bulleted format so each mark-earning point is visually distinct
• Be specific: name the exact danger sign (not just 'pain'), the exact threshold (60 breaths/min), the exact trimester (2nd or 3rd for deworming)
• Include the referral action in danger-signs questions
• Reference Philippine health programs where relevant (EINC, BEmONC, FHSIS)

Don't

• Do not write a single long paragraph — examiners struggle to identify individual marks in dense text
• Do not repeat the same point with different words to pad the answer
• Do not omit the midwife's scope/action — in public health midwifery, detecting AND referring are both expected
• Do not write more than 5-6 sentences — stay focused

Do

• Organize with numbered headings or subheadings (e.g., 1. Vital Signs: 2. Uterine Involution:)
• For every abnormal finding, state the danger sign AND the referral action
• Reference DOH standards, EINC/Unang Yakap, BEmONC, and TCL/FHSIS to demonstrate system-level understanding
• Include specific numbers and criteria (24-72 hours for newborn screening, 60/min for fast breathing, within 24 hours for first postnatal visit)
• Close with a sentence about documentation on TCL/FHSIS — this earns marks and shows public health awareness

Don't

• Do not write a wall of text without structure — examiners scan for mark-earning points
• Do not attempt to treat complications — frame all abnormal findings as 'detect and refer'
• Do not omit any major body system or topic area the question lists
• Do not spend more than 12 minutes on a 5-mark question — time management is critical in the MLE