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Midwife Licensure Exam Midwifery Pharmacology & Newborn ProceduresMandated Newborn Procedures by the MidwifeDetailed Explanation

Detailed explanation of Mandated Newborn Procedures by the Midwife for the Midwife Licensure Exam 2026. Full depth, full reasoning — exactly what you need when Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) — Board of Midwifery tests this chapter with applied or scenario-based questions in the Midwife Licensure Exam Midwifery Pharmacology & Newborn Procedures subtest.

Exam context

The Midwife Licensure Examination is conducted by Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) — Board of Midwifery and is scheduled for April and November 2026 (expected). The Midwifery Pharmacology & Newborn Procedures subtest is marked as "Core" in the official pattern, and Mandated Newborn Procedures by the Midwife appears in position 2nd of 4 in the Midwife Licensure Exam Midwifery Pharmacology & Newborn Procedures review rotation. Passing mark: 75% weighted average. Recent Midwife Licensure Exam 2026 papers have drawn roughly a meaningful share of questions from this subject.

Mandated Newborn Procedures by the Midwife - Detailed Explanation

As a registered midwife under RA 7392, you are the first guardian of the newborn in a normal delivery at the BHS, RHU, or lying-in clinic. Philippine law and DOH policy do not leave newborn care to chance — they mandate specific procedures, in a specific sequence, at specific times. Two landmark laws — the Newborn Screening Act (RA 9288) and the Universal Newborn Hearing Screening and Intervention Act (RA 9709) — together with the DOH Essential Intrapartum and Newborn Care (EINC) protocol called 'Unang Yakap' (First Embrace), form the legal and clinical backbone of everything you do for the baby in the first hours of life. This chapter covers every mandated procedure you are legally required to perform, the correct drug doses, the proper sequence, and the high-yield exam traps you must master to pass the PRC Midwife Licensure Examination.

Concepts

EINC / Unang Yakap — The Four Core Steps

The DOH Essential Intrapartum and Newborn Care (EINC) protocol, popularly known as 'Unang Yakap' or First Embrace, reorganizes the first minutes of newborn life around four evidence-based, time-bound core steps. These four steps are performed in a strict sequence because each one builds on the previous: (1) Immediate and thorough drying for the first 30 seconds — using a clean, warm towel to dry the baby from head to body. Drying prevents hypothermia (heat loss through evaporation) and provides tactile stimulation that triggers breathing. Critically, you do NOT wipe off the vernix caseosa, which serves as a protective coating and insulator. (2) Early skin-to-skin contact — the naked, dried baby is placed prone (chest-down) on the mother's bare abdomen or chest. Both mother and baby are covered with a clean, warm, dry cloth, and a bonnet is placed on the baby's head. Skin-to-skin stabilizes the baby's temperature using the mother's body heat, promotes bonding, colonizes the baby with beneficial maternal flora, and initiates the breastfeeding crawl reflex. (3) Properly timed cord clamping — the cord is clamped and cut ONLY after pulsations stop, roughly 1 to 3 minutes after birth. This 'delayed cord clamping' allows up to 80–100 mL of placental blood to transfuse back to the baby, significantly improving iron stores and reducing the risk of anemia in the first 6 months of life. (4) Non-separation of mother and baby for early breastfeeding — the mother-baby dyad is kept together, and the midwife supports the baby's spontaneous crawl toward the breast and first latch, ideally within the first 90 minutes. This initiates colostrum delivery, reinforces bonding, and stimulates uterine contraction via oxytocin release in the mother. The EINC 'Do-Not-Do' list is equally important for the MLE: Do NOT routinely suction a vigorous baby, Do NOT bathe the baby early (delay bathing at least 6 hours, ideally 24 hours), Do NOT separate mother and baby, Do NOT do foot-printing before skin-to-skin, and Do NOT wipe off vernix.

Examples

A vigorous, crying baby with good tone does not need suctioning. The first EINC step is always drying, which prevents heat loss through evaporation and stimulates breathing through tactile stimulation. Suctioning a vigorous baby is an EINC 'do-not-do' because it can cause vagal bradycardia and airway trauma.

Scenario

A midwife at a BHS just delivered a full-term baby. The baby immediately cries and has good muscle tone. What is the CORRECT first action?

Solution

Immediately and thoroughly dry the baby for 30 seconds, starting from the head down, using a clean warm towel. Do not suction. Do not wipe off vernix.

Clamping the cord while it is still pulsating is EARLY cord clamping — this deprives the baby of up to 80–100 mL of placental blood that is still transferring iron-rich red blood cells to the newborn. Properly timed (delayed) cord clamping is the third EINC step.

Scenario

After drying, the cord is still pulsating strongly. The attending BHW asks the midwife if she should clamp the cord now. What should the midwife say?

Solution

Wait. The cord should only be clamped and cut after cord pulsations have stopped, which typically takes 1 to 3 minutes after birth.

Early bathing causes hypothermia, removes the vernix (which has antimicrobial and moisturizing properties), and disrupts the early bonding and breastfeeding initiation process. This is a classic EINC 'do-not-do.' Bathing can be safely done after the baby has been stable for at least 6 hours.

Scenario

The mother asks the midwife to bathe the baby immediately after delivery because the baby looks 'dirty.' What is the EINC-based response?

Solution

Explain to the mother that bathing must be delayed for at least 6 hours (ideally 24 hours) after birth. The white coating (vernix) is actually protective and beneficial for the baby's skin.

Applications

  • Applied in every normal delivery at the BHS, RHU, or lying-in clinic
  • Used to counsel mothers and families about why the baby is not bathed immediately
  • Framework for educating birth companions and BHWs during pre-natal and community health education
  • Basis for evaluating quality of intrapartum care in BEmONC assessments
  • Referenced in DOH MNCHN program audits

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: Suctioning is always done first to clear the airway. FACT: Routine suctioning of a vigorous baby is NOT done — it is an EINC 'do-not-do.' Suctioning is only for non-breathing or airway-obstructed babies.
  • MISCONCEPTION: Cord clamping should be done as quickly as possible to prevent blood loss. FACT: Delayed cord clamping (waiting until pulsations stop, 1–3 minutes) benefits the baby by allowing placental blood transfusion.
  • MISCONCEPTION: The vernix should be wiped off because it is dirty. FACT: Vernix is NOT wiped off — it is a protective, antimicrobial, moisturizing coating that should remain on the baby's skin.
  • MISCONCEPTION: Bathing the baby soon after birth is hygienic. FACT: Early bathing causes hypothermia and removes vernix — it is delayed at least 6 hours, ideally 24 hours.
  • MISCONCEPTION: Foot-printing can be done before skin-to-skin to document the birth. FACT: Foot-printing is done AFTER skin-to-skin and breastfeeding initiation, not before.

Related Concepts

  • Thermoregulation and Hypothermia Prevention
  • APGAR Score Assessment
  • Newborn Resuscitation — Golden Minute
  • Early Breastfeeding and Colostrum
  • Cord Care and Omphalitis

Common Exam Questions

Example

Which of the following is the FIRST action of the midwife immediately after birth of a vigorous newborn? A) Clamp the cord B) Place baby on mother's chest C) Dry the baby immediately D) Suction the airway — Answer: C

Approach

Memorize the four EINC steps in exact order: Dry → Skin-to-skin → Delayed cord clamping → Non-separation/Early breastfeed. MLE may ask 'which is done FIRST' or 'which is done LAST.'

Question Type

Sequence/Order type

Example

A midwife delivers a vigorous term baby. Which action is CONTRAINDICATED by EINC? A) Drying B) Skin-to-skin contact C) Routine oropharyngeal suctioning D) Delayed cord clamping — Answer: C

Approach

Know all EINC 'do-not-do' items. MLE loves asking what the midwife should NOT do — routine suctioning, early bathing, early cord clamping, wiping vernix, and early separation are the classic wrong answers.

Question Type

Do-Not-Do type

Example

According to EINC, cord clamping should be done: A) Immediately after birth B) After 30 seconds C) After pulsations stop, 1–3 minutes D) After 5 minutes — Answer: C

Approach

Know exact time frames: 30 seconds for drying, 1–3 minutes for cord clamping, 90 minutes for first breastfeed, 6 hours minimum (24 hours ideal) for bathing.

Question Type

Timing type

Key Points To Remember

  • Four EINC steps in order: Dry (30 sec) → Skin-to-skin → Delayed cord clamping (1–3 min, after pulsations stop) → Non-separation for early breastfeeding (within 90 min)
  • Do NOT routinely suction a vigorous, breathing baby
  • Delay bathing at least 6 hours, ideally 24 hours after birth
  • Do NOT wipe off the vernix caseosa
  • Skin-to-skin: baby prone on mother's bare chest/abdomen, cover both, put bonnet on baby
  • Delayed cord clamping improves iron stores and reduces anemia risk
  • Early breastfeed ideally within first 90 minutes of life
  • Suctioning is ONLY done when the baby is not breathing or has obvious airway obstruction

APGAR Score and Newborn Assessment

The APGAR score is a rapid, systematic assessment tool used by the midwife to evaluate the newborn's condition at birth. It is scored at 1 minute and again at 5 minutes after birth. If the baby remains depressed (score below 7), scoring continues every 5 minutes up to 20 minutes. The APGAR acronym stands for: A — Appearance (color of the baby's skin), P — Pulse (heart rate), G — Grimace (reflex irritability/response to stimulation), A — Activity (muscle tone), R — Respiration (breathing effort and cry). Each parameter is scored 0, 1, or 2, giving a maximum total score of 10. Score interpretation: 7–10 = Good/Normal (baby is doing well), 4–6 = Moderately Depressed (baby needs stimulation, supplemental oxygen, and close monitoring), 0–3 = Severely Depressed (baby needs active resuscitation — this is a referral-level emergency). CRITICAL EXAM POINT: The APGAR score is a measure of transition, NOT a resuscitation trigger. In real practice, resuscitation is guided by the baby's breathing/crying, muscle tone, and heart rate — you DO NOT wait for the 1-minute APGAR score before starting resuscitation. If the baby is not breathing, you act immediately within the 'Golden Minute' (first 60 seconds). Beyond APGAR, the midwife performs a quick head-to-toe physical examination: check for gross anomalies (cleft lip, polydactyly, neural tube defects), check anal patency (pass a soft catheter or use a rectal thermometer to confirm the anus is not imperforate), and assess vital signs. Normal newborn vital signs to memorize: Respiratory Rate 40–60 breaths/min, Heart Rate 120–160 beats/min, Axillary Temperature 36.5–37.5°C, Birth Weight 2,500–4,000 g (Low Birth Weight = less than 2,500 g, Macrosomic = greater than 4,000 g).

Examples

A score of 6 means the baby is moderately depressed. The midwife should provide stimulation (dry, rub back/soles), ensure warmth and positioning, and assess the baby again at 5 minutes. This baby does not yet require active resuscitation but needs close observation.

Scenario

At 1 minute of age, a newborn has: body pink with blue hands and feet, HR of 110, grimaces when stimulated, some flexion of limbs, and a weak, slow cry. What is the APGAR score?

Solution

Appearance = 1 (body pink, extremities blue), Pulse = 2 (HR ≥ 100), Grimace = 1 (grimace only), Activity = 1 (some flexion), Respiration = 1 (slow, weak cry). Total APGAR = 6.

A score of 0–3 is severely depressed. However, the midwife should NOT have waited for the APGAR score to start acting — she should have begun resuscitation steps as soon as the baby failed to breathe. The Golden Minute rule means breathing must be established within 60 seconds of birth.

Scenario

A newborn is delivered with completely blue/pale color, no detectable heart rate, no response to stimulation, limp tone, and absent respirations. What is the APGAR score and what is the midwife's priority action?

Solution

APGAR = 0. All five parameters score 0. The midwife's PRIORITY is immediate resuscitation — call for help, clamp and cut cord promptly, move baby to warm firm surface, position and clear airway, provide positive-pressure ventilation with bag and mask, arrange urgent referral.

Applications

  • Used in every delivery as a standardized communication tool among health workers
  • Documents the newborn's condition at birth for the partograph and birth certificate
  • Guides the decision to observe vs. stimulate vs. refer the newborn
  • Basis for NBS timing decisions (a depressed baby needing referral may have NBS done before discharge or at referral facility)
  • Used in BEmONC quality assurance and maternal-neonatal death reviews

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: You must wait for the 1-minute APGAR score before deciding whether to resuscitate. FACT: Resuscitation is based on breathing, tone, and HR observed immediately at birth — you begin within the Golden Minute without waiting for a formal score.
  • MISCONCEPTION: Acrocyanosis (blue hands and feet) in the first minutes means the baby needs oxygen. FACT: Peripheral cyanosis/acrocyanosis is NORMAL in the first minutes and scores 1 for Appearance, not 0. Central cyanosis (blue lips, tongue, trunk) is the concern.
  • MISCONCEPTION: A normal APGAR at 5 minutes means all is well and no further monitoring is needed. FACT: A baby with a low 1-minute APGAR still needs close monitoring even if the 5-minute score improves, and must be documented and reported.

Related Concepts

  • EINC / Unang Yakap Four Steps
  • Newborn Resuscitation — Golden Minute
  • Thermoregulation
  • Normal Newborn Vital Signs
  • Referral and Detection of High-Risk Newborn

Common Exam Questions

Example

A newborn at 1 minute: central cyanosis, HR 88, no response to stimulation, limp, apneic. APGAR = ? — Answer: A=0, P=1, G=0, A=0, R=0 = Score of 1 (severely depressed)

Approach

Practice scoring each APGAR parameter. MLE gives a clinical description of a baby and asks for the total score or interpretation. Do not confuse Grimace and Reflex — they are the same parameter. Appearance of 1 = body pink but hands/feet are blue (this is normal acrocyanosis in the first minutes).

Question Type

Calculation type

Example

A baby is born limp and not breathing. The nurse says 'let us wait for the 1-minute APGAR before resuscitating.' The midwife should: A) Agree and wait 1 minute B) Begin resuscitation immediately C) Calculate APGAR first then decide D) Suction the airway first — Answer: B

Approach

MLE tests whether you know that APGAR does NOT drive resuscitation timing. Questions may ask 'Before performing the 1-minute APGAR score, the midwife notes the baby is not breathing. What should she do?' Answer: Begin resuscitation immediately — do not wait for the score.

Question Type

Critical thinking type

Key Points To Remember

  • APGAR at 1 minute AND 5 minutes; every 5 min up to 20 min if depressed
  • Score 7–10 = Normal; 4–6 = Moderately depressed; 0–3 = Severely depressed → refer
  • APGAR is a measure of transition, NOT a resuscitation trigger
  • Resuscitation begins on breathing/HR assessment, NOT on APGAR score
  • Normal RR: 40–60/min; Normal HR: 120–160/min; Normal Axillary Temp: 36.5–37.5°C
  • Normal birth weight: 2,500–4,000 g; LBW < 2,500 g; Macrosomic > 4,000 g
  • Check anal patency in all newborns
  • Golden Minute: establish breathing within first 60 seconds

Thermoregulation — Keeping the Baby Warm

Newborns are extremely vulnerable to heat loss because they have a large body surface area relative to their weight, little subcutaneous fat for insulation, and immature thermoregulatory mechanisms. The midwife must understand the four mechanisms of heat loss to prevent them: (1) Evaporation — amniotic fluid on the baby's skin evaporates and cools the baby; prevented by immediate drying. (2) Conduction — heat transfers to cold surfaces the baby touches; prevented by placing the baby on a warm surface or the mother's warm chest. (3) Convection — moving air currents carry heat away; prevented by keeping the delivery room warm and free of drafts, and covering the baby. (4) Radiation — heat transfers to cooler objects nearby without direct contact; prevented by keeping the baby away from cold walls, open windows, or air conditioning. The midwife maintains the 'Warm Chain' — a set of interlinked actions: immediate drying, skin-to-skin contact, a bonnet on the baby's head, delaying bathing, ensuring a warm (25–28°C) draft-free room, using warm hands and surfaces, and for small babies, Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC). Normal axillary temperature is 36.5–37.5°C. Hypothermia is defined as axillary temperature below 36.5°C. For a newborn with mild hypothermia who did not have adequate skin-to-skin, the midwife corrects this by initiating KMC (continuous skin-to-skin with mother) and reassessing temperature in 30 minutes. If hypothermia persists or is severe, especially in a preterm or LBW baby, the midwife REFERS to the RHU or hospital — persistent hypothermia in a small baby is a neonatal emergency.

Examples

36.2°C is mild hypothermia (below 36.5°C). The first response is to optimize KMC. If the temperature does not improve within 30 minutes or worsens, the midwife should refer the baby for further evaluation and management.

Scenario

At 30 minutes of age, a term newborn's axillary temperature is 36.2°C. The baby was dried and placed in skin-to-skin. What should the midwife do?

Solution

Reinforce skin-to-skin contact (KMC position) and add a warm blanket over both mother and baby. Ensure the room is warm and free of drafts. Recheck axillary temperature in 30 minutes.

Applications

  • Every newborn delivery at the BHS or lying-in requires warm chain implementation
  • Counseling mothers on why rooms should be warm during delivery
  • Teaching BHWs about the four mechanisms of heat loss during community orientations
  • KMC promotion for LBW babies as part of the Philippine DOH KMC program

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: A baby in a warm room does not need a bonnet or blanket. FACT: A newborn needs a bonnet because up to 25% of body heat is lost through the head. Even in a warm room, a bonnet and covering are part of the warm chain.
  • MISCONCEPTION: Bathing the baby with warm water will not cause hypothermia. FACT: Even warm-water baths cause significant heat loss through evaporation as the baby is dried — this is why bathing is delayed at least 6 hours.

Related Concepts

  • EINC / Unang Yakap
  • Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)
  • LBW and Preterm Newborn — Detect and Refer
  • APGAR Score
  • Warm Chain

Common Exam Questions

Example

A newborn is placed on a wet, unheated delivery table immediately after birth. The mechanism of heat loss is: A) Radiation B) Convection C) Conduction D) Evaporation — Answer: C (wet surface adds both conduction and evaporation — best answer is C for cold surface contact)

Approach

MLE may describe a scenario (e.g., baby placed on a cold metal table) and ask what type of heat loss is occurring. Conduction = cold surface, Evaporation = wet amniotic fluid, Convection = wind/aircon, Radiation = nearby cold objects without contact.

Question Type

Mechanism identification type

Key Points To Remember

  • Four mechanisms of heat loss: Evaporation, Conduction, Convection, Radiation (mnemonic: ECCC or Every Cold Child Radiates)
  • Normal axillary temperature: 36.5–37.5°C
  • Hypothermia = axillary temp < 36.5°C → initiate KMC and recheck; refer if persistent
  • Warm Chain: dry immediately, skin-to-skin, bonnet, delay bath, warm room (25–28°C), warm hands/surfaces
  • Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) is the primary intervention for mild hypothermia
  • Do NOT bathe the baby until at least 6 hours after birth (ideally 24 hours) — early bathing causes hypothermia
  • Vernix caseosa is protective — do not remove it

Vitamin K Prophylaxis

Every newborn is at risk for Vitamin K Deficiency Bleeding (VKDB), also called Hemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn. Newborns are born with very low stores of Vitamin K because it does not cross the placenta well, the newborn gut flora (which produces Vitamin K) is not yet established, and breast milk is naturally low in Vitamin K. VKDB can cause life-threatening bleeding in the brain (intracranial hemorrhage), GI tract, umbilical cord, or circumcision site — within days to weeks of birth. The midwife prevents this with a single intramuscular injection of Vitamin K1 (phytomenadione) given to every newborn. DOSE: 1 mg IM for term/normal-weight babies. 0.5 mg IM for preterm or low-birth-weight babies (specifically < 1.5 kg). SITE: Anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis muscle) — this is the preferred injection site for all newborn IM injections because it is the largest muscle mass available in the newborn, is free of major nerves and vessels, and is easily accessible. TIMING: Given within the first few hours after birth, after skin-to-skin contact and initial drying, and ideally before any procedure that could cause bleeding (e.g., before the newborn screening heel-prick). The midwife must know that VKDB can present as early (within 24 hours — usually drug-induced), classic (2–7 days — gut flora not yet established), or late (2 weeks to 6 months — associated with exclusively breastfed babies and liver disease). Late VKDB can cause sudden intracranial hemorrhage even in an apparently healthy baby — another reason every baby must receive the IM injection at birth.

Examples

The weight threshold for the reduced dose is 1.5 kg (very low birth weight), not simply 'preterm.' A preterm baby weighing more than 1.5 kg still gets the standard 1 mg dose. This is a common MLE trap.

Scenario

A midwife at a lying-in clinic delivers a 35-week preterm baby weighing 1.8 kg. What dose of Vitamin K1 should be given?

Solution

The baby is preterm. However, the 0.5 mg dose is specifically for babies weighing < 1.5 kg. Since this baby weighs 1.8 kg, the standard dose of 1 mg IM is given. The reduced dose (0.5 mg) applies only to babies under 1.5 kg.

The midwife's role is to inform, educate, and document. If the mother still refuses after informed counseling, document the refusal. The midwife cannot force treatment but must ensure the mother understands the risks.

Scenario

A mother refuses the Vitamin K injection, saying her baby is 'too small' for a shot. How should the midwife respond?

Solution

Educate the mother that Vitamin K is a life-saving injection that prevents serious, potentially fatal bleeding in the brain and other organs. Explain that newborns are born without enough Vitamin K, that the injection uses a very fine needle, and that the benefits far outweigh the brief discomfort. Document the counseling and the decision.

Applications

  • Applied in every normal delivery at BHS, RHU, and lying-in
  • Part of the Essential Newborn Care package of the DOH MNCHN program
  • Midwife must have Vitamin K1 in the delivery kit at all times
  • Basis for recognizing late VKDB — if a breastfed baby presents with sudden bleeding or neurological signs, the midwife refers immediately to the hospital

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: Only breastfed babies need Vitamin K. FACT: ALL newborns — formula-fed and breastfed — receive Vitamin K1 IM at birth, because all newborns are born with inadequate stores.
  • MISCONCEPTION: Oral Vitamin K is equivalent to IM for prevention. FACT: IM is the gold standard and is what Philippine DOH protocols require. Oral Vitamin K has lower absorption and requires multiple doses — it is not the mandated form in Philippine practice.
  • MISCONCEPTION: The dose for preterm babies is 0.5 mg regardless of weight. FACT: The 0.5 mg dose is for babies weighing LESS THAN 1.5 kg — weight is the threshold, not just gestational age.

Related Concepts

  • Newborn Immunization — BCG and Hepatitis B
  • Newborn Screening Heel-Prick
  • VKDB / Hemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn — Detect and Refer
  • Anterolateral Thigh Injection Technique
  • Newborn Physical Examination

Common Exam Questions

Example

A term newborn weighing 3.2 kg is delivered at the BHS. The midwife prepares to give Vitamin K1. The correct dose and site is: A) 0.5 mg IM, deltoid B) 1 mg IM, vastus lateralis C) 1 mg IV, umbilical vein D) 0.5 mg IM, gluteal — Answer: B

Approach

Memorize: 1 mg IM for term, 0.5 mg IM for < 1.5 kg. Site = anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis). MLE may give a baby's weight and ask the correct dose or may ask the injection site for newborns.

Question Type

Dose and site type

Example

Why is Vitamin K1 given to all newborns? A) To prevent jaundice B) To prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn C) To supplement iron stores D) To prevent ophthalmia neonatorum — Answer: B

Approach

Know why Vitamin K is given: newborns have low Vitamin K because it does not cross the placenta efficiently, gut flora is not yet established, and breast milk is low in Vitamin K. This makes them vulnerable to VKDB/Hemorrhagic Disease.

Question Type

Indication and rationale type

Key Points To Remember

  • Vitamin K1 (phytomenadione) IM: 1 mg for term; 0.5 mg for preterm/LBW < 1.5 kg
  • Site: Anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis muscle)
  • Timing: First few hours after birth, after drying and skin-to-skin
  • Purpose: Prevention of Vitamin K Deficiency Bleeding (VKDB) / Hemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn
  • Give BEFORE procedures that could cause bleeding (e.g., before heel-prick where sequencing allows)
  • VKDB types: Early (< 24 h), Classic (2–7 days), Late (2 wk–6 mo)
  • Oral Vitamin K is NOT as effective as IM for prevention
  • Every newborn receives this regardless of maternal history

Eye Prophylaxis — Erythromycin Ophthalmic Ointment

Eye prophylaxis is a mandated procedure for every newborn to prevent Ophthalmia Neonatorum — a serious eye infection acquired during passage through an infected birth canal. The most serious causative organisms are Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcal — causes severe purulent conjunctivitis within 2–5 days, can rapidly lead to blindness) and Chlamydia trachomatis (chlamydial — appears at 5–14 days). Even if the mother has no known history of sexually transmitted infection, prophylaxis is given to every baby without exception. The midwife applies Erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment (or tetracycline 1% ophthalmic ointment where erythromycin is unavailable). HOW TO APPLY: (1) Clean the baby's eyes gently with sterile gauze or clean cloth, (2) Apply a thin ribbon of ointment into the lower conjunctival sac of each eye, sweeping from the inner canthus (nasal side, near nose) to the outer canthus (temporal side, near ear), (3) Do this for BOTH eyes, (4) Do NOT irrigate (wash out) the eyes after application — this reduces the effectiveness of the prophylaxis. TIMING: Applied after the first skin-to-skin contact and breastfeed initiation (to avoid blurring the baby's vision during the critical bonding period), ideally within the first hour of life. It should NOT be delayed beyond 1 hour after birth.

Examples

A small amount of blurring is expected after eye ointment application — this is transient and harmless. The ointment needs to remain in contact with the conjunctiva to work. This is a classic exam trap.

Scenario

A midwife applies erythromycin ointment to the newborn's eyes and then wipes the eyes with sterile gauze to remove excess ointment. Is this correct?

Solution

No. The midwife should NOT irrigate or wipe out the eyes after applying the ointment. The excess ointment provides continued prophylactic coverage. Wiping it out reduces the effectiveness of the prophylaxis.

Universal application is the key principle. Even a mother who tests negative for STIs at antenatal visits may have acquired an infection before delivery. Prophylaxis is a population-level protection strategy — it is not an accusation of infection.

Scenario

The mother tells the midwife that she has no eye infection and asks why the baby needs eye ointment. What should the midwife explain?

Solution

Explain that eye prophylaxis is given to EVERY newborn by law, regardless of the mother's health history. Some infections can be present without symptoms (asymptomatic), and the newborn's immune system is not yet able to fight such infections. The ointment prevents a serious eye infection that can cause blindness.

Applications

  • Applied in every delivery at BHS, RHU, and lying-in
  • Midwife ensures erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is in every delivery kit
  • If an infant presents days later with purulent eye discharge, the midwife refers immediately for diagnosis and treatment — late presentation suggests prophylaxis failure or late infection
  • Part of the Universal Newborn Care standards under DOH MNCHN

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: Silver nitrate drops are the standard eye prophylaxis. FACT: Silver nitrate is outdated and is no longer used in the Philippines. Current DOH protocol uses erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment.
  • MISCONCEPTION: Eye prophylaxis is only for babies born to mothers with known gonorrhea. FACT: Eye prophylaxis is UNIVERSAL — given to every newborn regardless of maternal STI status.
  • MISCONCEPTION: The eyes should be washed after applying the ointment to prevent irritation. FACT: Do NOT irrigate. The ointment must remain in contact with the conjunctiva to work.

Related Concepts

  • Ophthalmia Neonatorum — Detect and Refer
  • Vitamin K Prophylaxis
  • EINC Sequencing
  • Newborn Physical Examination
  • STI in Pregnancy — Refer

Common Exam Questions

Example

The recommended ophthalmic prophylaxis for newborns in the Philippines is: A) Silver nitrate 1% drops B) Erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment C) Ciprofloxacin 0.3% eye drops D) Tetracycline 0.5% ophthalmic ointment — Answer: B (tetracycline 1% is an alternative if erythromycin is unavailable, but erythromycin 0.5% is first choice)

Approach

Know the drug name, formulation, and concentration. Erythromycin 0.5% OPHTHALMIC ointment — not oral tablets, not IV. MLE may give options with the wrong formulation, wrong concentration, or wrong drug (silver nitrate is outdated).

Question Type

Drug identification type

Example

After applying erythromycin ointment to both eyes, the correct action is: A) Irrigate both eyes with sterile water B) Wipe out excess ointment C) Leave the ointment in place — do not irrigate D) Apply a second coat after 5 minutes — Answer: C

Approach

MLE tests the correct application technique — especially the direction (inner to outer canthus) and the instruction NOT to irrigate afterward. These are the most commonly tested details.

Question Type

Technique type

Key Points To Remember

  • Drug: Erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment (or tetracycline 1%)
  • Purpose: Prevention of Ophthalmia Neonatorum (gonococcal and chlamydial eye infection)
  • Apply to BOTH lower conjunctival sacs, from inner to outer canthus
  • Do NOT irrigate/wash out the eyes after application
  • Given to EVERY newborn regardless of maternal history
  • Timing: After first skin-to-skin and breastfeed, ideally within 1 hour of birth
  • Do NOT use silver nitrate drops — this was the old method; modern practice uses erythromycin
  • Ophthalmic ointment only — not regular (systemic) erythromycin tablets or syrup

Newborn Screening — RA 9288

The Newborn Screening Act of 2004, or Republic Act 9288, is one of the most important laws tested in the MLE because it makes newborn screening (NBS) a MANDATORY, ROUTINE part of newborn care for every baby born in the Philippines. The purpose of NBS is to detect disorders that cause severe mental retardation, physical disability, or death if not treated — but are completely preventable or treatable if caught early, before symptoms appear. The METHOD is a heel-prick (heel-stick) — a small puncture is made on the lateral heel of the newborn, and a few drops of capillary blood are collected onto a special filter-paper card (also called a NBS card or Guthrie card). IDEAL TIMING: 24 to 72 hours after birth. This is critical: the sample must NOT be collected before 24 hours because some metabolites (especially for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia/CAH, measured by 17-OHP) will give false-positive or false-negative results if collected too early. If the baby is discharged before 24 hours (e.g., early discharge from a lying-in), the NBS can be collected as early as 24 hours and a repeat is required by 2 weeks of age. If done before 24 hours unavoidably, a REPEAT is required. The LEGAL RESPONSIBILITY for ensuring NBS is done falls on the midwife/birth attendant. The midwife must: (1) Collect the NBS sample at the correct time, (2) Fill out the NBS card completely, (3) Send the card to the NBS laboratory within 3 days of collection (on ice with a dry ice substitute), (4) Inform parents of the availability, purpose, and benefits of NBS (informed consent/assent), and (5) Document everything. Parents may refuse only after being fully informed, and refusal must be documented. A positive (abnormal/refer) result must be communicated to the family urgently and the baby referred for confirmatory testing and intervention. EXPANDED NBS PANEL includes: Congenital Hypothyroidism (CH), Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH), Galactosemia (GAL), Phenylketonuria (PKU), Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency (G6PD deficiency), Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD), and in the expanded panel: hemoglobinopathies, biotinidase deficiency, cystic fibrosis, and others. CLASSIC MLE EXAMPLE: Congenital Hypothyroidism (CH) — caused by absent or underdeveloped thyroid gland; if undetected, causes cretinism (severe, irreversible intellectual disability, growth retardation). If detected by NBS and treated with thyroxine within weeks of birth, the baby develops completely normally. This is why NBS is called a 'gift of normal life.'

Examples

NBS before 24 hours risks false results. The midwife's legal and ethical responsibility is to ensure the sample is collected at the correct time. She should document the plan and ensure follow-up.

Scenario

A baby is born at 3:00 AM at the BHS and is planned to be discharged at 6:00 AM (3 hours after birth). The mother is eager to go home. Should the midwife do the NBS before discharge?

Solution

If done at 6 AM (3 hours after birth), the baby is less than 24 hours old — this is too early. The midwife should educate the mother about NBS, defer the collection, and schedule the mother to return at exactly 24 hours (3:00 AM the next day) or up to 72 hours, or arrange for the NBS to be done at the nearest RHU within this window.

A 'refer' result means the screening detected an abnormal value that needs further work-up. It is not a diagnosis. Early action prevents the devastating consequences of untreated G6PD deficiency (hemolytic crisis from oxidative stress, jaundice, anemia).

Scenario

A newborn screening result comes back with a 'refer' result for G6PD deficiency. What does the midwife do?

Solution

The midwife immediately contacts the family to inform them of the result, explains that a 'refer' result does NOT confirm the diagnosis but means confirmatory testing is needed, and refers the baby to the nearest NBS confirmatory facility or hospital for repeat testing and evaluation.

Applications

  • Performed by the midwife on every baby born at BHS, RHU, or lying-in within 24–72 hours
  • Part of the DOH MNCHN and EINC newborn package
  • NBS cards are submitted to DOH-accredited laboratories (e.g., NIH-NSC, regional NBS labs)
  • Midwife counsels families during prenatal visits about the importance of returning for NBS at 24–72 hours
  • Community-based tracking: midwife follows up babies whose NBS was not done
  • If a baby is born at home, midwife ensures NBS is done at nearest BHS or RHU within the window

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: NBS should be done as early as possible, even at birth. FACT: NBS should NOT be done before 24 hours — doing so can lead to false results, especially for CAH (17-OHP levels are naturally elevated in the first 24 hours).
  • MISCONCEPTION: Only babies with risk factors or family history need NBS. FACT: NBS is UNIVERSAL — every baby born in the Philippines is mandated by RA 9288 to have NBS done.
  • MISCONCEPTION: A normal NBS result means the baby is completely healthy. FACT: NBS screens for specific metabolic and endocrine disorders only. It does not screen for all genetic conditions, structural anomalies, or infections.
  • MISCONCEPTION: If parents refuse, the midwife has no further responsibility. FACT: The midwife must document the refusal and re-counsel. The refusal must be in writing, and the midwife should continue to encourage the family to reconsider.

Related Concepts

  • Newborn Hearing Screening — RA 9709
  • Congenital Hypothyroidism — Classic NBS Disorder
  • G6PD Deficiency — Most Common in Philippines
  • Heel-Prick Technique
  • Vitamin K Prophylaxis (done before heel-prick where possible)
  • Referral and Follow-Up of Abnormal NBS Results

Common Exam Questions

Example

The law mandating newborn screening for all babies born in the Philippines is: A) RA 9709 B) RA 9288 C) RA 7392 D) RA 10028 — Answer: B

Approach

RA 9288 = Newborn Screening Act (not to be confused with RA 9709 = Hearing Screening). MLE loves testing the law number. Remember: 9288 for Newborn Screening, 9709 for Hearing Screening.

Question Type

Law identification type

Example

A newborn screening sample collected at 18 hours of age. What action should the midwife take? A) Accept the result as final B) Repeat the NBS by 2 weeks of age C) Discard the sample and redo at 24 hours D) Report the sample as invalid — Answer: B

Approach

The ideal timing (24–72 hours) and the minimum age (24 hours, with repeat needed if earlier) are high-yield. Know the consequence of doing it too early (false results) and what to do if done before 24 hours (repeat by 2 weeks).

Question Type

Timing type

Example

Which newborn screening disorder, if untreated, causes severe irreversible intellectual disability but is completely preventable with early thyroxine supplementation? A) PKU B) G6PD deficiency C) Congenital Hypothyroidism D) Galactosemia — Answer: C

Approach

Know the six core NBS disorders and what each causes if untreated. CH = cretinism/intellectual disability. PKU = brain damage from phenylalanine. G6PD = hemolysis. GAL = liver failure, sepsis-like illness, cataracts. CAH = adrenal crisis, ambiguous genitalia. MSUD = neurological damage.

Question Type

Disorder knowledge type

Key Points To Remember

  • Law: RA 9288 — Newborn Screening Act of 2004
  • Method: Heel-prick on lateral heel, blood on filter-paper card (Guthrie/NBS card)
  • Ideal timing: 24 to 72 hours after birth — NOT before 24 hours
  • If done before 24 hours: REPEAT required by 2 weeks of age
  • Midwife/birth attendant is legally responsible for ensuring NBS is done
  • Inform parents — they may refuse only after being fully informed; document refusal
  • Classic screened disorder: Congenital Hypothyroidism (CH) — prevented with early thyroxine
  • Positive result = refer urgently for confirmatory testing
  • 6 core disorders: CH, CAH, GAL, PKU, G6PD, MSUD
  • G6PD deficiency is the most common inherited metabolic disorder in the Philippines

Newborn Hearing Screening — RA 9709

Republic Act 9709, the Universal Newborn Hearing Screening and Intervention Act of 2009, mandates hearing screening for EVERY newborn born in the Philippines. Congenital hearing loss is one of the most common birth disorders — approximately 1–3 per 1,000 babies are born with significant hearing impairment. If not detected and treated early, hearing loss causes delays or absence of speech and language development, leading to lifelong communication disabilities. The critical window for intervention is by 6 months of age — hearing aids, cochlear implants, or specialized speech therapy started by 6 months can preserve normal or near-normal speech and language development. SCREENING METHODS: (1) Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE) — a tiny probe is placed in the baby's ear canal, emits a sound, and measures the echo produced by the inner ear (cochlea). It is quick (1–5 minutes), painless, and can be done while the baby sleeps. (2) Automated Auditory Brainstem Response (AABR) — measures the brain's electrical response to sounds via small electrodes on the baby's head. Also painless and quick. Both tests give a 'PASS' or 'REFER' result — REFER does not mean confirmed hearing loss; it means the baby needs repeat or confirmatory testing. TIMING: Ideally before hospital/facility discharge, or within the first month. The maximum age limit is 3 months (for screening) — intervention should begin by 6 months. At the BHS level, if OAE/AABR equipment is unavailable, the midwife's role is to: (1) Educate the family about the importance of hearing screening, (2) REFER the newborn to the nearest facility with hearing screening capability (e.g., DOH hospital, RHU with OAE), and (3) Document the referral. Referral is the key action when equipment is unavailable — the midwife does NOT skip or defer hearing screening.

Examples

Absence of equipment does not excuse the midwife from ensuring RA 9709 compliance. The appropriate action is referral — this is the midwife's core role: detect the need (in this case, screen as required by law) and refer to the appropriate facility.

Scenario

A BHS midwife delivers a healthy term baby. The BHS does not have OAE equipment. What should the midwife do regarding hearing screening?

Solution

Educate the mother about hearing screening, explain why it is mandatory under RA 9709, and REFER the baby to the nearest hospital or RHU with OAE or AABR equipment. Give the referral before the baby is one month old. Document the referral in the baby's records.

A 'refer' is a screening result, not a diagnosis. False-refer results are common in newborns screened within the first day or two due to amniotic fluid in the ear canal. The midwife's role is to ensure appropriate follow-up testing.

Scenario

A newborn's hearing screening result shows 'REFER' for the left ear. The mother is very worried and asks if the baby is deaf. What should the midwife tell her?

Solution

Reassure the mother that a 'REFER' result does NOT mean the baby is confirmed to be deaf. It means the test was not able to confirm normal hearing, which can happen for several reasons (baby was not fully quiet, fluid in the ear from birth). The baby needs a REPEAT test and possibly a more detailed hearing evaluation. Arrange the repeat screening as soon as possible.

Applications

  • Midwife includes hearing screening referral in every newborn discharge plan when OAE is unavailable at BHS
  • Counseling parents during prenatal visits about hearing screening at birth
  • Documenting hearing screening status in the baby's health records and FHSIS
  • Coordination with DOH hospitals and audiologists for confirmed cases
  • Part of the BEmONC quality assessment of newborn care

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: Hearing screening is only for babies with a family history of deafness. FACT: RA 9709 mandates UNIVERSAL hearing screening — for every baby, regardless of risk factors.
  • MISCONCEPTION: A 'refer' result means the baby is confirmed deaf. FACT: 'Refer' means the screening was inconclusive and repeat/confirmatory testing is needed — it is NOT a diagnosis of hearing loss.
  • MISCONCEPTION: Hearing screening can wait until the baby is talking age to see if there is a problem. FACT: The critical window for intervention is BY 6 MONTHS — waiting until the child is talking (18 months+) means the intervention window has already been missed.

Related Concepts

  • Newborn Screening — RA 9288
  • Congenital Hearing Loss — Referral
  • Normal Newborn Sensory Development
  • OAE and AABR Techniques
  • BEmONC and Newborn Quality Standards

Common Exam Questions

Example

Which Republic Act mandates universal hearing screening for all newborns in the Philippines? A) RA 9288 B) RA 7392 C) RA 9709 D) RA 10028 — Answer: C

Approach

RA 9709 = Hearing Screening; RA 9288 = Newborn Screening (metabolic). These two are frequently confused in the MLE. Use: 9709 ends in '09' — the year 2009, for Hearing in 2009.

Question Type

Law identification type

Example

A midwife at the BHS cannot perform OAE. She should: A) Skip hearing screening B) Wait until the baby is 6 months C) Refer the baby to a facility with OAE D) Use a tuning fork instead — Answer: C

Approach

Know: screening before discharge or within 1 month (3 months maximum); intervention by 6 months. Know that if equipment is unavailable, the action is REFER — not defer or skip.

Question Type

Timing and action type

Key Points To Remember

  • Law: RA 9709 — Universal Newborn Hearing Screening and Intervention Act of 2009
  • Methods: OAE (Otoacoustic Emissions) and/or AABR (Automated Auditory Brainstem Response)
  • Timing: Before discharge or within first month; maximum 3 months for screening
  • Intervention (hearing aids, therapy) must begin by 6 months of age for best outcomes
  • Result: PASS or REFER — 'Refer' does NOT mean confirmed hearing loss
  • If equipment unavailable at BHS: REFER to nearest hearing screening facility
  • Universal — every newborn, not just those with risk factors
  • Both tests are painless and can be done while baby sleeps

Cord Care

After properly-timed cord clamping (at 1–3 minutes after birth or when pulsations stop), the midwife cuts the cord using a sterile blade or scissors between two sterile clamps or ties. Modern DOH policy adopts DRY CORD CARE as the evidence-based standard. DRY CORD CARE means: Keep the cord stump CLEAN and DRY. Fold the diaper below the cord stump to keep it exposed to air and free from urine/stool contamination. Do NOT apply anything to the stump — no alcohol, no antiseptic solution, no iodine, no herbal preparations ('pusod' preparations), no dressings or bandages. Exposure to air promotes natural drying and separation of the cord stump. Exception: In high-risk settings (community with high neonatal infection rates), the WHO and DOH may recommend application of Chlorhexidine 4% solution to the cord stump on the first day — but this is only for specific protocols, not routine. The cord stump typically falls off in 5–15 days. The midwife teaches the mother the warning signs of omphalitis (cord infection), which require IMMEDIATE referral: redness (erythema) spreading around the base of the cord, foul-smelling or purulent discharge from the cord stump, swelling/warmth around the cord base, and the baby appearing ill or febrile. Omphalitis can rapidly progress to sepsis — a life-threatening emergency in a newborn — so early detection and referral are critical.

Examples

Traditional cord care practices (applying oil, ash, herbs, or saliva) are a known risk factor for neonatal tetanus and omphalitis in the Philippines. Cultural sensitivity combined with firm health education is the correct approach.

Scenario

A lola (grandmother) advises the mother to apply kamangyan (a local herbal paste) to the baby's cord stump as is traditional practice in their barangay. What should the midwife say?

Solution

Respectfully educate the lola and mother that applying anything to the cord stump — including traditional preparations — can introduce bacteria and cause cord infection (omphalitis). The DOH recommends dry cord care: keep it clean, dry, and free of any application. Teach them the signs of cord infection so they can seek help promptly.

Applications

  • Cord care counseling is done at discharge from BHS or lying-in
  • Part of the Well-Baby follow-up visit checklist at the BHS (cord inspection at Day 3 visit)
  • If omphalitis is detected during home visit or BHS consultation, immediate referral to RHU or hospital
  • Midwife documents cord condition at all newborn visits in the first 2 weeks

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: Alcohol should always be applied to the cord to sterilize it. FACT: Alcohol application is NO LONGER recommended by DOH. Dry cord care (clean and dry, nothing applied) is the current evidence-based standard.
  • MISCONCEPTION: The cord stump should be covered with a dressing or cloth to protect it. FACT: Covering the cord prevents air circulation and moisture evaporation, slowing separation and increasing infection risk. The cord should be EXPOSED to air.

Related Concepts

  • Properly Timed Cord Clamping — EINC
  • Omphalitis — Detect and Refer
  • Neonatal Tetanus — Prevention
  • Newborn Home Visit Checklist
  • EINC / Unang Yakap

Common Exam Questions

Example

The current DOH-recommended cord care for newborns is: A) Apply 70% alcohol twice daily B) Apply iodine solution daily C) Keep cord clean and dry, apply nothing D) Apply antibiotic ointment — Answer: C

Approach

Know that DRY CORD CARE is the current DOH standard. MLE may offer options like 'apply 70% alcohol' or 'apply iodine' — these are WRONG. The correct answer is always: keep clean and dry, apply nothing, fold diaper below stump.

Question Type

Standard of care type

Key Points To Remember

  • Dry cord care: keep clean and dry, fold diaper below stump, expose to air
  • Do NOT apply alcohol, antiseptics, iodine, herbal preparations, or dressings
  • Cord stump separates in 5–15 days
  • Chlorhexidine 4% may be used in HIGH-RISK settings only — not routine
  • Teach mother signs of omphalitis: redness, foul/purulent discharge, swelling, baby appears ill
  • Omphalitis → refer immediately (can progress to neonatal sepsis)
  • Cut cord with STERILE blade/scissors between two sterile clamps or ties
  • Properly-timed clamping: after pulsations stop, 1–3 minutes after birth

Birth Dose Immunization — BCG and Hepatitis B Vaccine

As part of the mandated newborn package under the DOH Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI), two vaccines are given within 24 hours of birth: (1) Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine and (2) Hepatitis B vaccine birth dose. BCG VACCINE: Protects against disseminated tuberculosis (TB) and TB meningitis in children. Given as 0.05 mL INTRADERMAL injection into the RIGHT deltoid (upper outer arm). Route is critically important — ID (intradermal), NOT IM or SC. An intradermal BCG injection creates a small bleb (wheal) under the skin. After 2–4 weeks, a small papule/pustule develops, which may ulcerate and then form a scar — this is a NORMAL reaction and parents must be counseled about it. The scar confirms successful vaccination. BCG is given to babies who are clinically well, term, with a normal birth weight. For sick, very preterm (< 32 weeks), or VLBW (< 1,500 g) babies, BCG is deferred until the baby is stable and has reached appropriate weight/gestation — this is done at the RHU or hospital. HEPATITIS B VACCINE BIRTH DOSE: Protects against vertical transmission of Hepatitis B from mother to baby (the most important route of HBV transmission in children). Given within 12 to 24 hours of birth (ideally within 12 hours for maximum effectiveness in babies of HBsAg-positive mothers). Dose: 0.5 mL IM into the anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis). The birth dose is given regardless of maternal HBsAg status. If the mother is known to be HBsAg-positive, HBIG (Hepatitis B Immune Globulin) may also be given within 12 hours — but HBIG administration is at the hospital level. The midwife's role at the BHS is to give the Hep B birth dose promptly and refer HBsAg-positive mothers and their babies for additional intervention.

Examples

The BCG local reaction is one of the most common reasons parents contact health workers with concern. The midwife must counsel families about this expected reaction at the time of vaccination so that unnecessary alarm is avoided. The scar is a positive indicator.

Scenario

A mother calls the BHS midwife on Day 7, very worried because her baby has a small bump and reddish area on the right upper arm where BCG was given. What should the midwife say?

Solution

Reassure the mother that this is a completely NORMAL and expected reaction to BCG vaccination. The bump (papule) will progress to a small pustule, may briefly ulcerate, and eventually form a small scar over 2–4 weeks. This scar is evidence that the BCG was successfully administered. No treatment is needed.

Applications

  • BCG and Hep B birth dose recorded in the baby's immunization card (pink card) at birth
  • Midwife fills out EPI immunization record at the BHS
  • For sick or preterm babies referred to hospital, the midwife documents that BCG is deferred and follow-up is needed at RHU
  • Counseling parents about normal BCG reaction reduces unnecessary return visits

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: BCG is given IM like other vaccines. FACT: BCG is strictly INTRADERMAL — given into the skin layer, not the muscle. Incorrect route reduces efficacy.
  • MISCONCEPTION: A pustule or scar after BCG means the vaccine was given incorrectly. FACT: This is the EXPECTED, NORMAL reaction confirming successful BCG administration.
  • MISCONCEPTION: The Hepatitis B birth dose is optional or can be given at the 6-week visit. FACT: The birth dose is specifically timed to prevent vertical (mother-to-baby) transmission — it must be given within 12–24 hours of birth to be effective.

Related Concepts

  • DOH Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)
  • Hepatitis B in Pregnancy — Detect and Refer
  • Tuberculosis Prevention
  • Newborn Physical Examination
  • Newborn Discharge Checklist

Common Exam Questions

Example

BCG vaccine is administered to newborns via which route and site? A) IM into the anterolateral thigh B) SC into the abdomen C) Intradermal into the right deltoid D) IM into the left deltoid — Answer: C

Approach

BCG = INTRADERMAL, RIGHT DELTOID. This is one of the most tested vaccine administration facts. MLE may offer 'IM into the thigh' or 'SC into the abdomen' as distractors. Hep B birth dose = IM, anterolateral thigh.

Question Type

Route and site type

Example

Two weeks after BCG vaccination, a newborn develops a small pustule at the injection site. The midwife's response is: A) Refer for antibiotic treatment B) Apply antiseptic and cover with bandage C) Reassure the mother this is the normal BCG reaction D) Report as vaccine adverse event — Answer: C

Approach

Know BCG's expected local reaction: papule at 2–4 weeks, possibly ulcerating, then a scar. This is NORMAL. MLE may describe this reaction and ask if it is normal or requires treatment.

Question Type

Normal reaction type

Key Points To Remember

  • BCG: 0.05 mL INTRADERMAL, RIGHT deltoid, within 24 hours of birth
  • Hepatitis B vaccine birth dose: 0.5 mL IM, anterolateral thigh, within 12–24 hours
  • Both vaccines given within 24 hours of birth as part of DOH EPI
  • BCG normal reaction: papule → pustule → ulcer → scar (2–4 weeks) — counsel parents
  • BCG deferred for sick, very preterm (< 32 wk), or VLBW (< 1,500 g) babies
  • Hep B birth dose important for HBsAg-positive mothers — give within 12 hours
  • HBIG for HBsAg-positive mothers' babies — hospital level intervention
  • Intradermal technique for BCG: creates a bleb/wheal — confirm correct route

Newborn Resuscitation — The Golden Minute

Even in a normal delivery attended by a midwife, any newborn can fail to breathe adequately at birth. The midwife's readiness to act within the GOLDEN MINUTE — the first 60 seconds of life — determines whether the baby lives without brain damage. After delivery, the midwife performs the INITIAL ASSESSMENT: (1) Is the baby term? (2) Is the baby breathing or crying? (3) Does the baby have good muscle tone? If all three are YES — proceed with EINC (dry, skin-to-skin, etc.). If ANY is NO — begin the initial resuscitation steps immediately. INITIAL STEPS (the first 30 seconds): Warm (put under radiant warmer or on a warm firm surface), Position (sniffing position — head slightly extended), Clear airway only if obstructed (suction mouth then nose, not routine), Stimulate (dry vigorously, flick soles). After initial steps, re-evaluate: if the baby is breathing and HR is ≥ 100 → continue EINC. If the baby is NOT breathing or HR < 100 → begin POSITIVE PRESSURE VENTILATION (PPV) with bag and mask immediately. The midwife uses a neonatal bag-valve-mask (Ambu bag) with 100% oxygen or room air, at a rate of 40–60 breaths per minute, providing 20–25 cm H2O pressure. MECONIUM-STAINED AMNIOTIC FLUID: If the baby is VIGOROUS (crying, good tone, HR ≥ 100) — proceed with EINC, no suctioning needed. If the baby is NOT vigorous (not breathing, limp, HR < 100) with meconium-stained fluid — clamp and cut cord promptly, move to warm firm surface, and begin resuscitation. Do NOT attempt to suction meconium from the trachea unless equipment and expertise are available (this is a hospital-level advanced procedure). At the BHS/lying-in level, the midwife's responsibility is: establish breathing with bag and mask, arrange immediate referral to the nearest BEmONC/CEmONC facility, and continue resuscitation during transport. DOCUMENTATION: Time of birth, time of first breath, APGAR scores, and all interventions are documented.

Examples

A non-vigorous baby with meconium does NOT get a gentle approach — this is a Golden Minute emergency. Advanced suctioning of meconium from the trachea (endotracheal suction) is a hospital/CEmONC procedure. The midwife focuses on establishing breathing via bag-mask and ensuring rapid transfer.

Scenario

A baby is born at the BHS, is not breathing, and appears limp. The amniotic fluid was meconium-stained. What should the midwife do?

Solution

This is a non-vigorous baby with meconium — this is a neonatal emergency. The midwife should: (1) Call for help, (2) Clamp and cut the cord promptly, (3) Move baby to a warm firm surface, (4) Position in sniffing position, (5) Suction mouth then nose if airway is obstructed, (6) Stimulate by drying vigorously, (7) If still not breathing after 30 seconds — begin PPV with bag and mask at 40–60 breaths/min, (8) Arrange IMMEDIATE referral to the nearest BEmONC hospital, (9) Continue PPV during transport.

Applications

  • Part of the mandatory BEmONC competency training for midwives
  • Neonatal resuscitation equipment (bag, mask, suction bulb) must be in every delivery kit
  • The midwife's resuscitation skills are audited in BEmONC assessments
  • Any baby requiring resuscitation at the BHS is referred to the RHU or hospital even if she initially responds — there is risk of secondary apnea

Misconceptions

  • MISCONCEPTION: If meconium is present, always suction the baby deeply before anything else. FACT: A vigorous baby with meconium needs no suctioning. A non-vigorous baby needs initial resuscitation steps first — deep tracheal suctioning is a hospital procedure.
  • MISCONCEPTION: If the baby begins to breathe after PPV, no further action is needed. FACT: Any baby who required PPV at birth must be REFERRED even if breathing improves, because of the risk of secondary apnea and the need for monitoring.

Related Concepts

  • APGAR Score — Not a Resuscitation Trigger
  • EINC — Vigorous vs Non-Vigorous Baby
  • BEmONC Competencies
  • Neonatal Asphyxia — Detect and Refer
  • Meconium-Stained Amniotic Fluid

Common Exam Questions

Example

A term newborn is not crying and appears limp after delivery. The FIRST action of the midwife is: A) Calculate APGAR score B) Begin PPV with bag and mask C) Warm, position, clear airway, and stimulate D) Give Vitamin K injection — Answer: C

Approach

The most common newborn resuscitation question asks what is done FIRST. Answer: Initial steps (warm, position, clear airway if obstructed, stimulate). Then reassess. Then PPV if needed. The order matters.

Question Type

Prioritization type

Key Points To Remember

  • Golden Minute: establish breathing within first 60 seconds of birth
  • Initial assessment: term? breathing/crying? good tone? If any NO → resuscitate
  • Vigorous baby + meconium: proceed with EINC, no suctioning needed
  • Non-vigorous baby: position, clear airway if obstructed, stimulate — if still not breathing → PPV
  • PPV: bag and mask at 40–60 breaths/min, 20–25 cmH2O
  • HR < 100 and not breathing → continue PPV and refer IMMEDIATELY
  • APGAR does NOT guide when to start resuscitation
  • Resuscitation at BHS level: bag-mask ventilation + immediate referral

Practice Problems

RA 9288 mandates that NBS be collected between 24 and 72 hours after birth. Collection before 24 hours risks false-positive results for CAH (17-OHP levels are physiologically elevated in the first 24 hours) and may also give false-negative results for other disorders whose metabolite levels have not yet accumulated. If the sample is collected before 24 hours, a REPEAT is required by 2 weeks of age.

Problem

A midwife delivers a term baby at the BHS at 6:00 PM. The baby cries immediately and has good tone. She dries the baby, initiates skin-to-skin, and waits for cord pulsations to stop (1.5 minutes) before clamping. She then supports the first breastfeed. At 7:00 PM (1 hour after birth), she gives Vitamin K1 and erythromycin eye ointment. At 8:00 PM, she gives BCG and Hepatitis B vaccine. She plans to collect the NBS heel-prick at 8:00 AM the next day (14 hours after birth). Is this timing correct? What should she do?

Solution

The NBS timing is INCORRECT. The sample at 14 hours is before the 24-hour minimum for NBS collection. The midwife should defer the heel-prick until the baby is at least 24 hours old — in this case, not before 6:00 PM the next day. She should schedule the mother to return at 6:00 PM (24 hours) up to 6:00 PM two days later (72 hours) for the NBS sample. All other procedures described (drying, skin-to-skin, delayed cord clamping, breastfeed, Vitamin K, eye ointment, BCG, Hep B) were done correctly and in appropriate sequence.

A perfect score of 10 means the baby is in excellent condition at 1 minute. In practice, many vigorous term babies score 8–9 because acrocyanosis (score of 1 for Appearance) is common in the first minute even in healthy babies. A score of 10 at 1 minute is achieved when the baby is completely pink — this is actually less common than scoring 9 at 1 minute.

Problem

Calculate the APGAR score for the following newborn at 1 minute: The baby is all pink from head to toe. HR is 130. When the nose is stimulated with a suction catheter, the baby sneezes vigorously. The baby is actively moving all limbs. The baby has a strong, lusty cry. What is the score and interpretation?

Solution

Appearance = 2 (completely pink all over), Pulse = 2 (HR 130, which is ≥ 100), Grimace = 2 (sneezes vigorously = strong response), Activity = 2 (active motion of all limbs), Respiration = 2 (strong, lusty cry). Total APGAR = 10. Interpretation: Normal. The baby is doing excellent and requires only routine EINC care.

Dry cord care is the evidence-based standard. Multiple studies have shown that applying antiseptics (alcohol, iodine, betadine) is no more effective than dry cord care in reducing omphalitis when compared to dry care in health-facility settings. In community settings with high infection risk, chlorhexidine may be used, but not betadine. The midwife should teach the mother signs of omphalitis (redness spreading around the base, foul-smelling discharge, swelling) and instruct her to return if these appear.

Problem

A mother at the BHS tells you she heard from a neighbor that applying betadine (povidone-iodine) to the cord stump will prevent infection. Her baby is 2 days old and the cord stump looks dry and clean. What is the correct advice?

Solution

Advise the mother NOT to apply betadine or any other substance to the cord stump. The current DOH recommendation is dry cord care — keep the stump clean and dry, fold the diaper below the stump, and let it be exposed to air. Applying betadine or other antiseptics is no longer recommended because it can actually delay cord separation and alter the normal skin flora in a way that may not be beneficial. The best thing she can do is keep it clean and dry.

Preterm and LBW newborns require the same mandated procedures with specific modifications: reduced Vitamin K dose (if < 1.5 kg), deferred BCG, increased emphasis on thermoregulation and KMC, and prompt referral. The midwife does not simply skip procedures — she adjusts doses and timing appropriately while prioritizing referral for the high-risk newborn.

Problem

A 33-week preterm baby weighing 1.3 kg is delivered at the BHS. The baby is breathing and crying. What modifications are needed in the mandated newborn procedures for this baby?

Solution

(1) EINC: Proceed with drying (30 sec), skin-to-skin for warmth (KMC), delayed cord clamping — all apply. However, this baby is at high risk for hypothermia and should immediately go to KMC to maintain temperature. (2) Vitamin K1: Give 0.5 mg IM (reduced dose for < 1.5 kg). (3) BCG: DEFER — BCG is deferred for very preterm (< 32 weeks) and VLBW (< 1.5 kg) babies. This baby is < 1.5 kg — BCG is deferred until the baby is stable and reaches appropriate weight. (4) Hepatitis B birth dose: Give 0.5 mL IM within 24 hours — the Hep B birth dose is NOT deferred. (5) Eye prophylaxis: Apply as normal. (6) NBS: Done at 24–72 hours as usual; note that preterm babies may require repeat NBS. (7) Hearing screening: Refer to appropriate facility. (8) MOST IMPORTANTLY: This baby is at high risk and should be REFERRED to the nearest hospital/NICU for monitoring and specialized care. Arrange transport while maintaining warmth (KMC during transport).

The sequencing of procedures in EINC is deliberate and evidence-based. The first 90 minutes of life are the 'sensitive period' for maternal-infant bonding and breastfeeding initiation. Eye ointment applied too early blurs the baby's vision, which relies on close visual contact with the mother to guide the crawl to the breast. This is why EINC places eye prophylaxis AFTER the initial bonding period.

Problem

A midwife applies erythromycin eye ointment to a newborn's eyes BEFORE the baby starts breastfeeding, at 5 minutes of life, saying she wants to 'finish all the procedures early.' What is the problem with this timing, and when should eye prophylaxis ideally be given?

Solution

The problem is that erythromycin ointment blurs the baby's vision temporarily after application. If applied before the first skin-to-skin and breastfeeding initiation, it interferes with the baby's ability to see the mother's face and breast clearly during the critical bonding and breastfeed crawl reflex period. Eye prophylaxis should be applied AFTER the first skin-to-skin contact and after the baby has had a chance to initiate or attempt the first breastfeed — ideally within the first hour of life, but not before the initial bonding and breastfeed opportunity.

Exam Preparation Tips

  • Master the EINC four steps in exact order: Dry (30 sec) → Skin-to-skin → Delayed cord clamping (1–3 min) → Non-separation/Early breastfeed (within 90 min). This sequence appears in multiple MLE questions every year.
  • Memorize the EINC 'Do-Not-Do' list: No routine suctioning of vigorous baby, No early bathing (minimum 6 hours, ideally 24 hours), No early separation, No vernix removal, No foot-printing before skin-to-skin. MLE loves to ask what NOT to do.
  • Know RA 9288 vs RA 9709: 9288 = Newborn Screening (metabolic, heel-prick, 24–72 hours, birth attendant is legally responsible); 9709 = Hearing Screening (OAE/AABR, before discharge or within 1 month). Never mix these up.
  • Memorize all six core NBS disorders with their mnemonics: CH, CAH, GAL, PKU, G6PD, MSUD. The classic high-yield example is Congenital Hypothyroidism — treated with thyroxine, prevents irreversible intellectual disability.
  • Vitamin K dose: 1 mg for term babies, 0.5 mg for babies LESS THAN 1.5 kg. Site: anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis). Route: IM. These three facts are tested almost every exam.
  • Eye prophylaxis drug: Erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment. Direction: inner to outer canthus. Critical rule: Do NOT irrigate after application. Given to every baby regardless of maternal history.
  • BCG vaccine: INTRADERMAL, RIGHT DELTOID, 0.05 mL. The normal reaction (papule → pustule → scar) must be counseled to parents. BCG is DEFERRED in sick, very preterm, and VLBW (< 1.5 kg) babies.
  • Normal newborn vitals — memorize as a group: RR 40–60/min, HR 120–160/min, Axillary Temp 36.5–37.5°C, Weight 2,500–4,000 g. LBW = < 2,500 g. Any value outside these ranges is a red flag.
  • APGAR scoring: Practice calculating scores from clinical descriptions. Remember Appearance = 1 means body pink, extremities blue (acrocyanosis — this is NORMAL in first minutes). APGAR is NOT a resuscitation trigger.
  • The Golden Minute principle: If a baby is not breathing, you DO NOT wait for the 1-minute APGAR score — resuscitation begins immediately. This is tested as a critical-thinking question where the wrong option is to 'wait for the APGAR score first.'
  • For cord care, the answer is always DRY CORD CARE: clean and dry, nothing applied, fold diaper below stump. Any option that says 'apply alcohol' or 'apply iodine' is WRONG in current DOH practice.
  • NBS timing trap: If NBS is done before 24 hours, a REPEAT is required by 2 weeks. If done between 24–72 hours, no repeat needed unless result is abnormal. If normal discharge before 24 hours, schedule return for NBS at 24–72 hours.
  • For hearing screening at BHS where OAE is unavailable, the answer is always: REFER to nearest hearing screening facility before 1 month. Never 'skip' or 'defer indefinitely.'
  • Practice the complete newborn procedure sequence for time-based questions: Dry/Assess → Skin-to-skin → Delayed cord clamping → First breastfeed → Vitamin K + Eye ointment → Weigh/Examine → BCG + Hep B → NBS (24–72 h) → Hearing screening.
  • Use the mnemonic 'DRABC' for newborn resuscitation priority: Dry, Reposition, Airway, Breathing (PPV), Call for help. And always REFER any baby who required resuscitation even if they improve.
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In summary

The mandated newborn procedures represent the midwife's core clinical and legal responsibilities at every normal delivery in the Philippines. From the first 30 seconds of life — when you dry the baby and begin the Unang Yakap sequence — to the heel-prick newborn screening at 24–72 hours and the hearing screening before discharge, every procedure is time-sensitive, sequenced, and legally required. As a midwife operating independently at the BHS, RHU, or lying-in clinic, you are not simply a birth attendant — you are the primary guardian of the newborn's first hours of life. Mastery of these procedures means mastery of the EINC four steps, the APGAR scoring system, the correct drug doses and routes for Vitamin K and eye prophylaxis, the exact timing and legal requirements of RA 9288 and RA 9709, the principles of dry cord care, and the birth immunization schedule under the DOH EPI. In the MLE, questions on these topics test not just knowledge but clinical judgment — knowing WHEN to act, in WHAT ORDER, at WHAT DOSE, and most importantly, WHEN TO REFER. A baby who is warm, breathing, and breastfeeding represents the successful outcome of all these procedures done correctly in sequence. Carry this vision into your exam — and into every delivery you attend.

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