NLE Family Planning & Population at Risk — Community & Population Groups at RiskExam Answer Templates

Examiner tip

This is a pure recall question. The one trap is confusing the DOH minimum (4 visits) with the WHO model (8 contacts). Always specify which standard the question is asking about.

Model answer

The DOH recommends a minimum of FOUR (4) antenatal care visits for a normal pregnancy.

Answer structure

• State the exact number (4 visits) — this is the single scorable point [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing 'eight' — that is the WHO 2016 recommendation, not the DOH minimum
• Writing 'at least three' — this is outdated and incorrect
• Leaving out the qualifier 'for a normal pregnancy,' which changes the answer context

Key phrases to include

• four antenatal care visits
• DOH standard
• normal pregnancy

Examiner tip

Both the iron dose and the folic acid dose must be present for full credit. Examiners penalize incomplete answers even when one value is correct.

Model answer

Every pregnant woman receives 60 mg elemental iron plus 400 micrograms (µg) of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, continued for up to three months postpartum.

Answer structure

• State the exact iron dose (60 mg elemental iron) — [0.5 mark]
• State the exact folic acid dose (400 µg) — [0.5 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Stating only one component (iron without folic acid or vice versa)
• Writing an incorrect dose such as '30 mg iron' or '1 mg folic acid'
• Omitting the route or frequency (daily, throughout pregnancy)

Key phrases to include

• 60 mg elemental iron
• 400 micrograms folic acid
• daily
• throughout pregnancy

Examiner tip

The most common error is writing 'immediate cord clamping.' The EINC protocol specifically replaced early clamping with delayed clamping (after cord pulsations stop). This single detail is a frequent NLE trap.

Model answer

The four steps of the EINC/Unang Yakap protocol (AO 2009-0025) are:

1. Immediate and thorough drying of the newborn within the first 30 seconds.
2. Early skin-to-skin contact between the mother and newborn.
3. Properly-timed cord clamping after cord pulsations stop (approximately 1–3 minutes after birth).
4. Non-separation of the newborn from the mother to facilitate early initiation of breastfeeding within the first 90 minutes.

Answer structure

• Number each step clearly (Steps 1–4) — sequence must be correct
• Step 1: Immediate drying within 30 seconds [0.5 mark]
• Step 2: Early skin-to-skin contact [0.5 mark]
• Step 3: Properly-timed cord clamping (1–3 minutes) [0.5 mark]
• Step 4: Non-separation and early breastfeeding within 90 minutes [0.5 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Listing only three of the four steps
• Stating 'immediate cord clamping' — the protocol specifies DELAYED (1–3 minutes) cord clamping
• Writing 'breastfeeding within 30 minutes' instead of 90 minutes
• Mixing up the order of steps

Key phrases to include

• immediate and thorough drying
• skin-to-skin contact
• cord clamping after 1–3 minutes
• non-separation
• early breastfeeding within 90 minutes
• AO 2009-0025

Examiner tip

The distinguishing factor between BEmONC and CEmONC is surgical capacity (cesarean section) and blood transfusion. Always state these two explicitly.

Model answer

BEmONC (Basic Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care) is provided at the Rural Health Unit (RHU) or health-center level. It can manage most obstetric emergencies through medical interventions (e.g., parenteral oxytocin, magnesium sulfate, antibiotics) and assisted vaginal delivery, but cannot perform cesarean section or blood transfusion.

CEmONC (Comprehensive Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care) is provided at the hospital level and includes all BEmONC functions PLUS the capacity for cesarean section and safe blood transfusion, enabling management of life-threatening complications such as placenta previa and uterine rupture.

Answer structure

• Define BEmONC with correct setting (RHU/health center) [0.5 mark]
• State BEmONC key limitation (no CS, no blood transfusion) [0.5 mark]
• Define CEmONC with correct setting (hospital level) [0.5 mark]
• State CEmONC added capabilities (CS + blood transfusion) [0.5 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Reversing the settings (placing CEmONC at RHU level)
• Omitting the specific capabilities that distinguish CEmONC (cesarean section and blood transfusion)
• Writing only one of the two (describing only BEmONC or only CEmONC)

Key phrases to include

• Rural Health Unit
• health center
• hospital level
• cesarean section
• blood transfusion
• BEmONC
• CEmONC

Examiner tip

Think of traffic lights: green = go home, yellow = caution/treat here, pink/red = stop/refer urgently. This memory aid prevents colour-action confusion.

Model answer

The IMCI (Integrated Management of Childhood Illness) uses three colour-coded classification categories:

1. PINK (Red) — Urgent referral: The child has severe signs (e.g., unable to drink, unconscious, severe malnutrition). The nurse refers immediately to a higher-level facility after first-dose treatment.
2. YELLOW — Treat at facility: The child has moderate illness (e.g., non-severe pneumonia, some dehydration). The nurse provides specific treatment at the health facility and counsels the caregiver.
3. GREEN — Home management: The child has a simple illness with no danger signs. The nurse teaches the caregiver home care and gives advice on when to return.

Answer structure

• Identify PINK classification with meaning (urgent referral) [0.5 mark]
• Identify YELLOW classification with meaning (treat at facility) [0.5 mark]
• Identify GREEN classification with meaning (home management) [0.5 mark]
• Provide at least one example or action for any one colour [0.5 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Confusing the colour meanings (e.g., saying yellow means urgent referral)
• Naming colours without stating the associated action
• Spelling IMCI incorrectly or not expanding the acronym

Key phrases to include

• pink urgent referral
• yellow treat at facility
• green home management
• IMCI
• danger signs
• childhood illness

Examiner tip

The six disorders in the expanded newborn screening panel are commonly tested. At minimum, memorize CH and PKU as the two most frequently asked. Always include the RA number and year.

Model answer

The Philippine Newborn Screening Program is governed by RA 9288, the Newborn Screening Act of 2004. It mandates screening of all newborns for congenital metabolic and endocrine disorders before hospital discharge or within 48–72 hours of birth.

Two common disorders screened include:

1. Congenital Hypothyroidism (CH) — deficiency of thyroid hormone, leading to intellectual disability if untreated.
2. Phenylketonuria (PKU) — inability to metabolise phenylalanine, causing brain damage if dietary restriction is not initiated early.

Answer structure

• State the RA number and full title (RA 9288, Newborn Screening Act of 2004) [1 mark]
• Name at least two screened disorders with brief descriptions [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Citing the wrong RA number (e.g., RA 9293 or RA 9188)
• Naming only one disorder instead of two
• Confusing newborn screening disorders with EPI vaccine-preventable diseases

Key phrases to include

• RA 9288
• Newborn Screening Act of 2004
• congenital hypothyroidism
• phenylketonuria
• 48–72 hours
• metabolic disorders

Examiner tip

In a 3-mark question, examiners award one mark per major provision. Cover at least three distinct provisions. The RA number (9994) and the year (2010) together signal knowledge precision and often earn a dedicated half-mark.

Model answer

RA 9994, the Expanded Senior Citizens Act of 2010, provides the following health-related provisions for Filipinos aged 60 years and above:

1. 20% Discount and VAT Exemption: Senior citizens receive a 20% discount and exemption from the 12% value-added tax (VAT) on medicines, medical and dental consultations, professional fees, diagnostic and laboratory fees, and hospital admissions.
2. Mandatory PhilHealth Coverage: All senior citizens are mandatorily enrolled in PhilHealth as indirect contributors, with premiums subsidised by the government under the Universal Health Care Law, ensuring access to inpatient and outpatient benefits without direct payment of premiums.
3. Free Vaccination: Indigent senior citizens are entitled to free influenza and pneumococcal vaccines, reducing their risk from respiratory infections — the leading cause of death in this age group.
4. OSCA: The Office for Senior Citizens Affairs (OSCA) at every LGU issues the senior citizen identification card and coordinates local programs, express lane privileges, and social pension for qualified indigent seniors.

Answer structure

• Introduction: Identify RA 9994, its full title, and year [0.5 mark]
• Point 1: 20% discount and VAT exemption with specific items covered [1 mark]
• Point 2: Mandatory PhilHealth coverage as indirect contributor [0.5 mark]
• Point 3: Free vaccination (flu and pneumococcal) for indigent seniors [0.5 mark]
• Point 4: OSCA role [0.5 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Citing the wrong law number (e.g., RA 7432 or RA 9257 — these are the earlier versions)
• Stating '10% discount' instead of 20%
• Omitting VAT exemption when mentioning the discount
• Failing to state that PhilHealth coverage is government-subsidised (not self-paid)
• Omitting the OSCA function

Key phrases to include

• RA 9994
• Expanded Senior Citizens Act of 2010
• 20% discount
• VAT exemption
• indirect contributors
• PhilHealth
• indigent senior citizens
• influenza and pneumococcal vaccines
• OSCA
• 60 years and above

Examiner tip

Memorize the progression: TT1 = 0, TT2 = 3 years, TT3 = 5 years, TT4 = 10 years, TT5 = lifetime. The fact that TT1 gives NO protection is a frequent NLE trap.

Model answer

The five doses of tetanus toxoid (TT1–TT5) and their respective durations of protection are:

1. TT1 — Provides NO protection; it initiates the immunization schedule.
2. TT2 — Given at least 4 weeks after TT1; provides approximately 3 years of protection.
3. TT3 — Given at least 6 months after TT2; provides approximately 5 years of protection.
4. TT4 — Given at least 1 year after TT3; provides approximately 10 years of protection.
5. TT5 — Given at least 1 year after TT4; provides LIFETIME protection against maternal and neonatal tetanus.

Completion of all five doses also ensures that any newborn delivered by the immunized mother is protected against neonatal tetanus.

Answer structure

• List all five doses (TT1 to TT5) with correct labels [1 mark]
• State correct duration for each dose (TT1 = none, TT2 = 3 yrs, TT3 = 5 yrs, TT4 = 10 yrs, TT5 = lifetime) [1 mark]
• State the benefit for the newborn (neonatal tetanus prevention) [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Saying TT1 provides some protection — it provides none
• Stating TT4 gives lifetime protection instead of TT5
• Omitting the newborn protection component entirely
• Confusing the minimum interval between doses

Key phrases to include

• TT1 through TT5
• lifetime protection
• neonatal tetanus
• 3 years TT2
• 5 years TT3
• 10 years TT4
• maternal tetanus
• properly spaced doses

Examiner tip

The definition must contain two elements: a defined group AND heightened vulnerability or shared hazard. One element alone earns only partial credit.

Model answer

A population at risk is a defined group of individuals who share exposure to a common hazard or heightened vulnerability that increases their probability of experiencing poor health outcomes compared to the general population. In community health nursing, identifying these groups guides priority setting and ensures that limited resources are directed to those with the greatest need.

The DOH lifecycle approach recognizes the following priority groups:

1. Mothers (pregnant and postpartum women) — vulnerable to maternal mortality and complications.
2. Infants and young children (under 5 years) — at risk for vaccine-preventable diseases, malnutrition, and childhood illnesses.
3. School-age children and adolescents (6–19 years) — at risk for anemia, mental health issues, substance use, and teenage pregnancy.
4. Older persons (60 years and above) — at risk for chronic non-communicable diseases, falls, polypharmacy, and social isolation.

Cross-cutting vulnerable groups include persons with disability, indigenous peoples, and the poor.

Answer structure

• Define 'population at risk' — shared hazard and heightened vulnerability [1 mark]
• State why it matters in community health nursing (priority setting/resource allocation) [0.5 mark]
• List four DOH lifecycle priority groups with one risk characteristic each [1.5 marks — 0.375 per group]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Giving a vague definition (e.g., 'people who are sick') without mentioning shared hazard
• Listing only two or three priority groups
• Naming groups without any accompanying risk context

Key phrases to include

• defined group
• shared hazard
• heightened vulnerability
• lifecycle approach
• mothers
• infants and young children
• adolescents
• older persons
• persons with disability
• Target Client List

Examiner tip

Five-mark case studies are graded across the entire nursing process (ADPIE). Examiners look for: law citation, NANDA diagnosis format, nursing-process progression, referral, and a measurable evaluation. Hitting all five components earns all five marks.

Model answer

NURSING ASSESSMENT (Priority: Maslow — Safety and Physiological Needs First)

I. Subjective Data:

• Obtain menstrual history: last menstrual period (LMP), regularity, amenorrhea duration.
• Ask about physical symptoms: nausea, breast tenderness, fatigue, urinary frequency.
• Assess emotional status, anxiety level, and social support system.
• Screen for safety: Is she in a safe relationship? Is there any history of coercion, abuse, or trafficking? (Relevant to RA 9262 Anti-VAWC and RA 9208/10364 Anti-Trafficking)

II. Objective Data:

• Take vital signs, height, and weight.
• Note general appearance, emotional affect.
• Refer for urine pregnancy test (hCG) confirmation at the RHU.

PRIORITY NURSING DIAGNOSES (NANDA):

1. Anxiety related to unexpected pregnancy and social consequences.
2. Deficient Knowledge related to reproductive health options and available services.
3. Risk for Impaired Parenting related to adolescent age and limited maturity.

NURSING INTERVENTIONS:

1. Ensure Privacy and Confidentiality: Interview the client ALONE. Under RA 10354 (RPRH Act of 2012), adolescents have the right to confidential reproductive health services. However, confidentiality must be balanced with safety — if there is evidence of abuse, mandatory reporting applies.
2. Provide Emotional Support: Use non-judgmental, empathic communication. Avoid stigmatizing language. Acknowledge her feelings before proceeding to health education.
3. Health Education: Inform her about the importance of early antenatal care. The DOH recommends the FIRST ANC visit before 12 weeks gestation. Discuss iron and folic acid supplementation (60 mg iron + 400 µg folic acid daily) and tetanus immunization schedule.
4. Safety Screening: Screen for violence or coercion using open-ended questions. If abuse is suspected, follow RA 9262 (Anti-VAWC Act) and RA 7610 (Special Protection of Children) protocols — document findings and refer to the WCPU (Women and Children Protection Unit) and barangay VAW desk.
5. Referral and Coordination: Refer to the RHU for pregnancy confirmation, antenatal registration, and social work assessment. Coordinate with the school guidance counselor, DSWD, and Adolescent Health and Development Program (AHDP) services.
6. Regarding Parental Notification: Respect her wish for confidentiality under the RPRH Act while explaining that parental involvement is encouraged for her safety. If she is at risk for abuse, the nurse's duty to protect overrides confidentiality.

EVALUATION: Client verbalizes understanding of the importance of early ANC, is able to state the first ANC visit schedule, and is linked to appropriate services.

Answer structure

• Paragraph 1: Prioritized nursing assessment — subjective and objective data relevant to adolescent pregnancy [1 mark]
• Paragraph 2: Safety screening — screen for violence/coercion, cite applicable laws (RA 9262, RA 7610) [1 mark]
• Paragraph 3: At least two NANDA nursing diagnoses with related factors [1 mark]
• Paragraph 4: Nursing interventions — confidentiality (RA 10354), antenatal care education, referral (WCPU, DSWD, AHDP) [1.5 marks]
• Paragraph 5: Evaluation statement — what does a successful outcome look like [0.5 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Failing to cite any Philippine law despite clear opportunities in the scenario
• Not screening for abuse/violence — a critical component in adolescent reproductive health
• Omitting NANDA nursing diagnoses or writing incorrect diagnostic format (missing related factor)
• Not including a referral plan
• Writing only medical management without integrating the nursing process
• Ignoring the adolescent's right to confidentiality under RA 10354

Key phrases to include

• RA 10354
• RPRH Act of 2012
• confidentiality
• non-judgmental
• RA 9262 Anti-VAWC
• RA 7610
• WCPU
• AHDP
• adolescent-friendly
• early antenatal care
• safety screening
• NANDA nursing diagnosis
• referral
• DSWD
• EO 141

Examiner tip

Every child-abuse question will test RA 7610 and the sequence: document → report → refer → ensure safety. Examiners award a dedicated mark for naming the reporting agencies. List at least three to be safe.

Model answer

NURSING ASSESSMENT:
The nurse notes objective signs of possible child abuse: multiple bruises at various stages of healing, a pattern inconsistent with the caregiver's explanation ('play accidents'), and the child's behavioral cues (withdrawal, fear, or flat affect). Using a body map, the nurse carefully documents the size, color, location, and pattern of each bruise using objective, non-interpretive language.

PRIORITY NURSING DIAGNOSIS (NANDA):

1. Risk for Injury (further abuse) related to suspected child maltreatment as evidenced by bruising inconsistent with caregiver explanation.
2. Impaired Parenting related to possible maladaptive coping behaviors.

IMMEDIATE NURSING ACTIONS:

1. Ensure Child Safety First (Maslow — Safety): Assess immediate danger. Do not leave the child alone with the suspected abuser. If there is imminent risk, the child must be removed from the unsafe situation.
2. Interview the Child Separately and Privately: Using age-appropriate, non-leading, open-ended questions to elicit information from the child without the parent or suspected abuser present. Do not coerce or suggest answers.
3. Maintain a Non-Accusatory Approach with the Caregiver: Do not directly accuse the mother at this time; gather information objectively while preserving the therapeutic relationship.
4. Accurate and Objective Documentation: Record ALL findings using a body map diagram, direct quotes from the child, and exact observations. Documentation may serve as legal evidence in subsequent proceedings under RA 7610.

5. Mandatory Reporting — RA 7610 (Special Protection of Children Against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act): Child abuse is MANDATORY to report. The nurse must report to:

   • The DSWD (Department of Social Welfare and Development) — for child protective services and possible temporary custody.
   • The PNP Women and Children Protection Desk (PNP-WCPD) — for investigation.
   • The Women and Children Protection Unit (WCPU) at the nearest hospital — for medical examination, forensic documentation, and psychosocial services.
   • The Barangay VAW Desk — for community-level protection and Barangay Protection Order (under RA 9262 if applicable).
6. Referral for Medical Evaluation: Refer the child to a physician at the WCPU for a thorough physical examination, documentation of injuries, and management of any physical health needs.
7. Confidentiality: Maintain strict confidentiality of all findings and disclosures. Share information only with authorities and agencies on a need-to-know basis, consistent with the mandatory-reporting duty.

EVALUATION: The child is linked to protective services (DSWD, WCPU), and a safety plan is in place. The case is reported to the appropriate authorities within the required timeframe.

Answer structure

• Paragraph 1: Objective assessment findings and body map documentation [1 mark]
• Paragraph 2: Immediate safety action and private child interview [1 mark]
• Paragraph 3: Mandatory reporting — cite RA 7610, name at least 3 agencies (DSWD, PNP-WCPD, WCPU, Barangay VAW Desk) [1 mark]
• Paragraph 4: NANDA diagnoses and referral for medical evaluation [1 mark]
• Paragraph 5: Documentation accuracy and confidentiality with evaluation statement [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Not citing RA 7610 as the mandatory reporting law for child abuse
• Failing to name at least three reporting agencies
• Describing a confrontational approach with the parent — non-accusatory technique is required
• Omitting the body map or documentation component
• Not separating the child from the parent for interview
• Breaching confidentiality (e.g., announcing to the whole community)

Key phrases to include

• RA 7610
• mandatory reporting
• body map
• DSWD
• PNP Women and Children Protection Desk
• WCPU
• Barangay VAW Desk
• safety first
• private interview
• non-leading questions
• objective documentation
• RA 9262
• confidentiality

Examiner tip

Memorize the RA numbers alongside a one-phrase provision: RA 9262 = economic abuse + BPO; RA 7610 = child mandatory reporting; RA 9710 = Magna Carta of Women; RA 8353 = marital rape. This formula earns 3/3.

Model answer

The following Philippine laws protect women and children from violence:

1. RA 9262 — Anti-Violence Against Women and Their Children (Anti-VAWC) Act of 2004: Penalizes physical, sexual, psychological, and economic abuse committed by a partner or former partner; provides for Barangay Protection Orders (BPO), Temporary Protection Orders (TPO), and mandates a VAW desk in every barangay.
2. RA 7610 — Special Protection of Children Against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act: Protects children from abuse, neglect, cruelty, and exploitation; child abuse is mandatory to report to DSWD and law-enforcement authorities.
3. RA 9710 — Magna Carta of Women (2009): A comprehensive human-rights law that prohibits all forms of discrimination against women and obliges the State to actively protect women from violence and ensure access to services.
4. RA 8353 — Anti-Rape Law of 1997: Reclassified rape as a crime against persons (not against chastity), expanded its definition to include marital rape, and provided stronger penalties.

Answer structure

• Law 1: RA 9262 with one provision (BPO, economic abuse, VAW desk) [0.75 mark]
• Law 2: RA 7610 with one provision (mandatory reporting, child protection) [0.75 mark]
• Law 3: RA 9710 or RA 8353 with one provision each [1.5 marks — 0.75 each]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Confusing RA numbers (e.g., writing RA 9262 for child protection instead of women/partner violence)
• Stating an incorrect provision that belongs to a different law
• Listing only law titles without RA numbers
• Writing only three laws when four are required

Key phrases to include

• RA 9262
• Anti-VAWC
• Barangay Protection Order
• economic abuse
• RA 7610
• mandatory reporting
• RA 9710
• Magna Carta of Women
• RA 8353
• marital rape
• VAW desk in every barangay

Examiner tip

Two distinct facts are tested here: the WHO/DOH adolescent age bracket AND the specific executive order. Both must be present for full credit on a combined 1-mark question.

Model answer

Adolescents are defined as individuals aged 10 to 19 years. Executive Order 141 (2021) declared the prevention of adolescent pregnancy a national priority in the Philippines.

Answer structure

• State the age range: 10–19 years [0.5 mark]
• Cite EO 141 (2021) [0.5 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Writing '13–19 years' or '15–24 years' — these are incorrect age boundaries
• Citing RA 10354 instead of EO 141 (RA 10354 is the RPRH Act, not the specific EO on teen pregnancy)
• Omitting the year 2021

Key phrases to include

• 10 to 19 years
• adolescent
• Executive Order 141
• 2021
• national priority
• adolescent pregnancy prevention

Examiner tip

In 3-mark questions asking for multiple areas, examiners award roughly 1 mark per area. Always pair each assessment AREA with a specific nursing ACTION — assessment alone without action earns partial marks only.

Model answer

The community nurse serves as care provider, health educator, case finder, advocate, coordinator, and referral agent for older persons (60 years and above). Comprehensive geriatric assessment (CGA) is the primary tool for identifying health risks in this population.

Three key areas of CGA and the nurse's role:

1. Falls Risk and Functional Assessment: The nurse assesses the older person's mobility, balance, and ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs). Fall prevention includes home safety counseling (remove loose rugs, install grab bars, ensure adequate lighting) and exercise referral. Falls are the leading cause of injury-related hospitalization in older persons.
2. Cognitive and Mood Assessment: The nurse screens for dementia (using validated tools such as the Mini-Cog or MMSE) and depression (using the Geriatric Depression Scale or GDS). Early detection enables timely referral to mental health services and caregiver education.
3. Medication Safety (Polypharmacy Assessment): Older persons often take multiple drugs, increasing risk for adverse drug reactions and drug interactions. The nurse reviews the complete medication list, educates the client and caregiver on correct dosing and schedules, and coordinates with the physician to rationalise the drug regimen.

Additional areas include nutritional assessment (malnutrition/undernutrition risk), sensory assessment (vision, hearing), and social support evaluation.

Answer structure

• Introduction: Identify the nurse's cross-cutting roles with older persons [0.5 mark]
• Area 1: Falls risk and functional assessment with nursing action [1 mark]
• Area 2: Cognitive and mood assessment with specific screening tool [1 mark]
• Area 3: Medication safety/polypharmacy with nursing action [0.5 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Listing only one area of CGA instead of three
• Mentioning assessment without stating the nursing action taken
• Confusing geriatric assessment tools (e.g., using pediatric scales for adults)
• Not connecting the assessment findings to the nursing role (what does the nurse DO with the findings?)

Key phrases to include

• comprehensive geriatric assessment
• falls risk
• activities of daily living
• polypharmacy
• cognitive assessment
• dementia screening
• Geriatric Depression Scale
• home safety
• RA 9994
• 60 years and above
• functional assessment

Examiner tip

Associate RA 7277 with the three 7s — think PWDs need three kinds of support: physical, social, economic. For RA 8371, remember IP = Indigenous Peoples = IPRA. The year (1997) is a helpful memory anchor.

Model answer

1. RA 7277 — Magna Carta for Persons with Disability: This law protects the rights of PWDs, including their right to accessible health services and rehabilitation. It also grants PWDs discounts on medicines and medical services similar to the senior citizen privileges, and mandates barrier-free health facilities to ensure physical access.
2. RA 8371 — Indigenous Peoples' Rights Act (IPRA) of 1997: This law recognizes the rights of indigenous peoples (IPs), including their right to culturally-appropriate health services that respect their traditions and beliefs. Health programs delivered to IP communities must involve community consent and integrate indigenous healing practices where appropriate.

Answer structure

• PWD law: RA 7277, full title, one health provision [1 mark]
• IP law: RA 8371 / IPRA, full title, one health provision [1 mark]

Scoring breakdown

Common mark deductions

• Confusing RA numbers — RA 7277 is for PWDs, RA 8371 is for IPs; mixing these is a common NLE error
• Providing a social provision instead of a health-related provision
• Citing incomplete RA titles (e.g., just 'IPRA' without RA 8371 number)

Key phrases to include

• RA 7277
• Magna Carta for Persons with Disability
• accessible health services
• RA 8371
• Indigenous Peoples Rights Act
• IPRA
• culturally-appropriate
• barrier-free facilities

Do

• Write the exact number, RA number, or term without hedging
• Include units where relevant (e.g., 'mg,' 'years,' 'visits')
• State the official/proper name (e.g., 'RA 9994' not just 'senior citizens law')
• Answer directly — first sentence should contain the answer

Don't

• Do not write a paragraph for a 1-mark question — it wastes time
• Do not use vague terms like 'approximately' when an exact figure is needed
• Do not repeat the question in your answer
• Do not confuse WHO recommendations with DOH standards — read the question carefully

Do

• Split your answer visually into two distinct parts
• Number your points (1, 2) for clarity
• Include both components — even if one is weaker, attempt both
• State the RA number when a law question is involved

Don't

• Do not write one long continuous sentence that makes it hard for examiners to identify two separate points
• Do not over-elaborate on one point while ignoring the second
• Do not list four or five items when asked for two — this signals you are unsure which two are correct
• Do not omit the law year or full title when citing legislation

Do

• Use clear headings or numbered points to structure your answer
• Cite specific RA numbers, DOH program names, and clinical values (doses, ages)
• Include nursing actions — not just knowledge — to show clinical application
• Write a brief conclusion or evaluation statement to round off the answer

Don't

• Do not write only two points for a 3-mark question
• Do not give general statements like 'the nurse provides care' — be specific about what care
• Do not use the same point twice in slightly different words
• Do not forget to check that you have covered every sub-question if the question has multiple parts (e.g., 'identify AND describe')

Do

• Follow the ADPIE nursing process structure explicitly
• Include at least two NANDA nursing diagnoses with related factors in correct format ('____ related to ____ as evidenced by ____')
• Name at least two Philippine laws (RA numbers and titles) relevant to the case
• List at least two to three referral agencies by their full name
• Write a measurable evaluation criterion at the end
• Use Maslow's hierarchy to justify your priority nursing diagnosis

Don't

• Do not focus only on medical management — examiners want nursing process and legal/ethical dimensions
• Do not use incorrect NANDA diagnostic formats (e.g., omitting related factor)
• Do not write only about assessment while ignoring interventions and evaluation
• Do not cite laws by general description only (e.g., 'the anti-violence law') — always use the RA number
• Do not exceed the word limit unnecessarily — quality and structure matter more than volume