NLE Respiratory Nursing Reviewer 2026
12 Respiratory Nursing practice questions for the Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination (PNLE), each with the correct answer and an explanation of why it's right.
Respiratory Nursing Practice Questions with Answers
- 1easy
The nurse is assessing a 35-year-old adult client in the medical ward. Which respiratory rate is considered within the normal range for a healthy adult?
- A.8–11 breaths per minute
- B.12–20 breaths per minute
- C.22–28 breaths per minute
- D.30–35 breaths per minute
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. 12–20 breaths per minute
Step 1 – Recall the normal value: The normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute. Step 2 – Eliminate the wrong options: A rate of 8–11 is bradypnea (too slow), 22–28 is tachypnea (too fast), and 30–35 is severely elevated, often seen in respiratory distress. Step 3 – Apply the concept: Any rate outside 12–20 triggers further assessment. On the NLE, this is a basic recall item — memorize 12–20 as the anchor normal value for adult respiratory rate.
- 2easy
While auscultating a patient with asthma, the nurse hears a continuous, high-pitched, musical sound during expiration. Which adventitious breath sound does this describe?
- A.Crackles (rales)
- B.Rhonchi
- C.Wheezes
- D.Pleural friction rub
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Wheezes
Step 1 – Identify the key descriptors in the question: continuous, high-pitched, musical, and expiratory. Step 2 – Match to the correct sound: Wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched sounds produced by air moving through narrowed airways — exactly what happens in asthma due to bronchoconstriction. Step 3 – Eliminate wrong answers: Crackles are discontinuous and popping (not musical); rhonchi are low-pitched and snoring-like (large airway secretions); pleural friction rub has a grating quality. Step 4 – Clinical connection: Wheezes are the hallmark of asthma and COPD — classic NLE question pairing.
- 3easy
The nurse hears a high-pitched crowing sound WITHOUT using a stethoscope in a child who just choked on food. Which breath sound is this, and what does it indicate?
- A.Wheezes; indicating lower airway narrowing
- B.Stridor; indicating upper airway obstruction
- C.Crackles; indicating fluid in the alveoli
- D.Rhonchi; indicating secretions in large airways
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. Stridor; indicating upper airway obstruction
Step 1 – Key clue: heard WITHOUT a stethoscope. This means the sound is loud enough to be audible at the bedside. Step 2 – Identify the sound: Stridor is a high-pitched, crowing, or barking sound produced when airflow is obstructed at the level of the trachea or larynx (upper airway). Step 3 – Clinical urgency: Stridor is always an emergency — it signals a potentially life-threatening upper airway obstruction (foreign body, laryngospasm, croup, or epiglottitis). Step 4 – Maslow prioritization: Airway is the first physiologic need. Stridor = act immediately. Step 5 – Eliminate others: Wheezes come from lower airways; crackles and rhonchi require a stethoscope.
- 4easy
A patient's ABG results are: pH 7.30, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. Using the ROME method, how should the nurse interpret this result?
- A.Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated
- B.Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated
- C.Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
- D.Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
Step 1 – Check pH: 7.30 is below 7.35 → ACIDOSIS. Step 2 – Check PaCO2: 50 mmHg is above the normal range of 35–45 mmHg → elevated CO2. Step 3 – Apply ROME (Respiratory Opposite): pH is LOW and CO2 is HIGH — they move in opposite directions → RESPIRATORY problem. Elevated CO2 causes respiratory acidosis. Step 4 – Check HCO3: 24 mEq/L is within normal (22–26) → the kidneys have NOT compensated yet. Step 5 – Conclusion: Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated. Common causes include COPD, hypoventilation, and sedative overdose.
- 5easy
Which of the following sets of values represents NORMAL arterial blood gas (ABG) results for an adult?
- A.pH 7.50, PaCO2 28 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
- B.pH 7.38, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
- C.pH 7.30, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
- D.pH 7.50, PaCO2 42 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. pH 7.38, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Step 1 – Memorize normal ABG ranges: pH 7.35–7.45; PaCO2 35–45 mmHg; HCO3 22–26 mEq/L. Step 2 – Evaluate each option: Option A has pH 7.50 (alkalosis) and CO2 28 (low) → respiratory alkalosis. Option B: pH 7.38 is between 7.35 and 7.45 ✓; PaCO2 40 is between 35 and 45 ✓; HCO3 24 is between 22 and 26 ✓ — all normal. Option C: pH 7.30 is too low (acidosis). Option D: pH 7.50 and HCO3 30 suggest metabolic alkalosis. Step 3 – Answer: Option B is the only set where all three values fall within normal range.
- 6easy
The physician orders oxygen via nasal cannula for a post-operative patient. At a flow rate of 4 L/min, approximately what FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) does a nasal cannula deliver?
- A.Approximately 21% (room air)
- B.Approximately 36%
- C.Approximately 60%
- D.Approximately 90%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. Approximately 36%
Step 1 – Recall nasal cannula FiO2 range: A nasal cannula delivers 24–44% O2 at flow rates of 1–6 L/min. Step 2 – Use the general estimate: Each 1 L/min adds approximately 4% above room air (21%). At 4 L/min: 21% + (4 × 4%) = 21% + 16% = 37% — approximately 36–37%. Step 3 – Eliminate wrong options: 21% is room air (no supplemental O2 added); 60% requires a simple face mask; 90% requires a non-rebreather mask. Step 4 – Safety note: Flow rates above 6 L/min do not significantly increase FiO2 via nasal cannula and will dry the mucosa — add humidification at flows above 4 L/min.
- 7easy
A patient with COPD requires supplemental oxygen. Which oxygen delivery device is MOST appropriate for this patient to ensure a precise, controlled FiO2?
- A.Non-rebreather mask
- B.Simple face mask
- C.Venturi mask
- D.Partial rebreather mask
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Venturi mask
Step 1 – Understand the COPD oxygen concern: Some COPD patients are chronic CO2 retainers who may rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe. Giving too much uncontrolled oxygen can suppress this drive and cause CO2 retention (CO2 narcosis). Step 2 – The Venturi mask is a high-flow, fixed-performance device that delivers a precise, preset FiO2 (commonly 24%, 28%, 31%, 35%, 40%) regardless of the patient's breathing pattern. Step 3 – This precision makes it the device of choice for COPD patients. Target SpO2 for COPD is 88–92%, not the usual 94–98%. Step 4 – Eliminate others: The non-rebreather, simple mask, and partial rebreather are all variable-FiO2 (low-flow) devices that can deliver unpredictable amounts of oxygen.
- 8easy
The nurse notes the water in the water-seal chamber of a chest tube drainage system rising during inspiration and falling during expiration in a spontaneously breathing patient. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
- A.This is an air leak — clamp the chest tube immediately
- B.This is tidaling and is a NORMAL expected finding
- C.The chest tube is obstructed — notify the physician immediately
- D.The lung has fully re-expanded — remove the chest tube
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. This is tidaling and is a NORMAL expected finding
Step 1 – Define tidaling: Tidaling (also called fluctuation) refers to the gentle rise and fall of fluid in the water-seal chamber that moves with the patient's breathing. It reflects changes in intrapleural pressure with respiration. Step 2 – Why it is normal: During spontaneous inspiration, the diaphragm descends, making intrathoracic pressure more negative → water rises. During expiration, pressure increases → water falls. Step 3 – What to watch for instead: CONTINUOUS bubbling = air leak (abnormal); ABSENT tidaling = tube kinked, clogged, or lung has re-expanded. Step 4 – Action: No action is needed; document as a normal finding and continue monitoring.
- 9easy
A patient's chest tube accidentally becomes dislodged and pulls out of the chest. What is the PRIORITY nursing action?
- A.Reinsert the chest tube immediately
- B.Cover the site with a sterile occlusive dressing taped on three sides
- C.Cover the site with a sterile occlusive dressing taped on all four sides
- D.Leave the site open to allow air to escape freely
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. Cover the site with a sterile occlusive dressing taped on three sides
Step 1 – Priority: Airway and breathing (Maslow's physiologic needs). A dislodged chest tube creates an open wound in the chest — air can rush in and collapse the lung (open pneumothorax). Step 2 – Correct action: Immediately cover the site with a sterile occlusive dressing (e.g., petroleum gauze or plastic wrap) taped on THREE sides only. The fourth side left open acts as a flutter valve — it allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering during inspiration. Step 3 – Why NOT four sides: Taping all four sides traps air inside the pleural space, potentially causing a tension pneumothorax — a life-threatening emergency. Step 4 – Follow-up: Notify the physician immediately and prepare for chest tube reinsertion.
- 10easy
A spirometry report shows a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio of 65% (below 70%). Which pattern of lung disease does this finding suggest?
- A.Restrictive lung disease (e.g., pulmonary fibrosis)
- B.Obstructive lung disease (e.g., asthma or COPD)
- C.Normal lung function
- D.Pulmonary hypertension
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. Obstructive lung disease (e.g., asthma or COPD)
Step 1 – Understand the FEV1/FVC ratio: FEV1 is the amount of air forcefully exhaled in 1 second; FVC is the total air exhaled with maximum effort. The ratio reflects how quickly air can exit the lungs. Step 2 – Obstructive disease: In conditions like asthma and COPD, airways are narrowed → airflow is limited → FEV1 falls more than FVC → FEV1/FVC ratio is LOW (below 70%). Step 3 – Restrictive disease: In fibrosis or chest-wall deformity, the lungs are stiff/small → FVC is reduced, but air still exits quickly → FEV1/FVC ratio is NORMAL or even HIGH. Step 4 – Memory aid: Obstruct = blocked = low ratio. Restrict = small = low FVC but normal ratio.
- 11easy
A patient is admitted with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which type of transmission-based precaution is MOST appropriate for this patient?
- A.Contact precautions
- B.Droplet precautions
- C.Airborne precautions
- D.Reverse isolation
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Airborne precautions
Step 1 – Identify the route of transmission: Mycobacterium tuberculosis spreads via airborne droplet nuclei – tiny particles that remain suspended in the air for long periods and travel more than 1 meter. Step 2 – Match transmission route to precaution type: Airborne precautions are required for pathogens spread by airborne nuclei (TB, measles, varicella). These require a negative-pressure isolation room and an N95 respirator for healthcare workers. Step 3 – Eliminate wrong options: Contact precautions are for direct skin or surface contact (e.g., MRSA, wound infections). Droplet precautions are for larger droplets that fall within 1 meter (e.g., influenza, strep pharyngitis) – a very common NLE distractor with TB. Reverse isolation protects an immunocompromised patient FROM others, not the reverse. Step 4 – Key NLE point: TB = AIRBORNE, not droplet. Staff wear N95 respirator; a surgical mask is placed on the PATIENT during transport.
- 12easy
A patient on anti-TB therapy tells the nurse, 'My urine turned orange-red this morning. Am I bleeding internally?' Which anti-TB drug is responsible for this finding, and what is the correct nursing response?
- A.Isoniazid; instruct the patient to stop the drug immediately.
- B.Ethambutol; refer to the physician for possible optic neuritis.
- C.Rifampicin; reassure the patient that this is a harmless, expected side effect.
- D.Pyrazinamide; monitor uric acid levels and encourage fluids.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Rifampicin; reassure the patient that this is a harmless, expected side effect.
Step 1 – Recognize the drug-specific side effect: Orange-red discoloration of urine, sweat, saliva, and tears is the signature side effect of Rifampicin. It occurs because rifampicin is an orange-red pigmented drug that is excreted in body fluids. Step 2 – Determine clinical significance: This discoloration is harmless and expected. It is NOT a sign of bleeding. Patients often panic, so therapeutic communication and reassurance are key nursing actions. Step 3 – Eliminate wrong options: Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy, not orange urine; stopping it without medical advice is dangerous. Ethambutol causes optic neuritis (visual changes). Pyrazinamide raises uric acid causing gout, not orange urine. Step 4 – Additional teaching point: Rifampicin can permanently stain soft contact lenses orange – advise the patient to wear glasses during therapy.
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