NLE Emergency & Critical Care Nursing Reviewer 2026
12 Emergency & Critical Care Nursing practice questions for the Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination (PNLE), each with the correct answer and an explanation of why it's right.
Emergency & Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions with Answers
- 1easy
A nurse is caring for a patient with acute asthma who was previously wheezing loudly. The nurse notes that the wheezing has suddenly stopped, but the patient appears more distressed and has a deteriorating level of consciousness. What does this finding most likely indicate?
- A.The patient is improving and bronchospasm is resolving.
- B.The patient is experiencing impending respiratory arrest due to critically poor airflow.
- C.The patient no longer needs bronchodilator therapy.
- D.The patient has developed a pneumothorax.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. The patient is experiencing impending respiratory arrest due to critically poor airflow.
Step 1 – Understand the clinical finding: A 'silent chest' in a previously wheezing asthmatic means airflow has become so severely reduced that air movement is insufficient to produce any audible wheeze. Step 2 – Recognize the danger: Wheezing requires some airflow to generate sound. No sound means near-total obstruction — this is a life-threatening sign, NOT improvement. Step 3 – Why Option A is WRONG: Stopping of wheezing because the bronchospasm is resolving would be accompanied by clinical improvement (better oxygen saturation, decreasing respiratory effort, improved consciousness) — the opposite of what is described here. Step 4 – Why Option C is WRONG: This patient actually needs MORE aggressive intervention, including escalation to IV/nebulized bronchodilators and possible intubation. Step 5 – Why Option D is WRONG: Pneumothorax is possible but the classic presentation includes absent breath sounds on one side and sudden sharp pain, not progressive distress after asthma wheezing. Key NLE Point: A silent chest in an asthmatic = EMERGENCY. Prepare for immediate escalation of care.
- 2easy
A patient arrives at the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. The nurse suspects acute coronary syndrome (ACS). What is the FIRST priority diagnostic action the nurse should facilitate?
- A.Administer aspirin 160–325 mg orally.
- B.Obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes of arrival.
- C.Insert a peripheral IV line.
- D.Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes of arrival.
Step 1 – Understand the priority: In ACS, identifying ST-elevation MI (STEMI) immediately is critical because STEMI requires urgent reperfusion therapy (PCI or fibrinolytics). Every minute of delay = more myocardial cell death. Step 2 – The 10-minute rule: The standard of care requires a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes of patient presentation. This is the definitive step to identify STEMI and guide all subsequent management. Step 3 – Why not aspirin first (Option A)? Aspirin is a very early and important intervention, but the 12-lead ECG is the first DIAGNOSTIC priority that determines the entire management path. In practice both happen nearly simultaneously. Step 4 – Why not IV line first (Option C)? IV access is needed but is secondary to identifying the ECG pattern. You cannot give the right drug without the right diagnosis. Step 5 – Why not nitroglycerin first (Option D)? Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in certain ACS presentations (hypotension, RV infarct, PDE-5 inhibitor use). The ECG helps identify right ventricular MI before nitroglycerin is given. NLE Mantra: 'Time is muscle' — 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes is the gold standard first diagnostic action.
- 3easy
A patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome has a blood pressure of 85/60 mmHg and reports taking sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor) earlier that day. Which MONA component should the nurse WITHHOLD?
- A.Aspirin
- B.Oxygen
- C.Nitroglycerin
- D.Morphine
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Nitroglycerin
Step 1 – Recall MONA: Oxygen (if hypoxic), Nitroglycerin, Aspirin, Morphine. Each component has contraindications. Step 2 – Nitroglycerin's contraindications: (a) Hypotension (systolic <90 mmHg) — nitroglycerin causes vasodilation which would further drop the already-low BP; (b) Recent PDE-5 inhibitor use (sildenafil, tadalafil) — combined use causes severe, potentially fatal hypotension; (c) Suspected right ventricular (RV) infarction. Step 3 – This patient has TWO contraindications: hypotension (BP 85/60) AND recent sildenafil use. Nitroglycerin is clearly contraindicated. Step 4 – Why not withhold aspirin (Option A)? Aspirin is a cornerstone of ACS management. Unless the patient has true aspirin allergy or active bleeding, it should be given (160–325 mg chewed). Step 5 – Why not withhold oxygen (Option B)? Oxygen is given when hypoxic. Even if not hypoxic, it is not contraindicated by sildenafil or hypotension in the same way nitroglycerin is. NLE Tip: Always check BP and medication history before giving nitroglycerin in ACS.
- 4easy
A patient presents with severe dyspnea, crackles bilaterally, pink frothy sputum, and diaphoresis, consistent with acute pulmonary edema. What is the PRIORITY positioning for this patient?
- A.Supine with legs elevated (Trendelenburg position)
- B.Left lateral (recovery) position
- C.High Fowler's position (upright, 90 degrees) with legs dependent
- D.Semi-Fowler's position (30–45 degrees)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. High Fowler's position (upright, 90 degrees) with legs dependent
Step 1 – Understand the pathophysiology: In acute pulmonary edema, excess fluid has moved into the lungs from the congested pulmonary circulation, making breathing severely difficult. Step 2 – Why upright positioning works: Sitting upright (High Fowler's) allows the diaphragm to drop, maximizing lung expansion. Dangling legs (dependent position) uses gravity to pool blood in the lower extremities, reducing venous return (preload) to the already-overloaded heart. Step 3 – Why NOT Trendelenburg (Option A)? Trendelenburg elevates the legs, which increases venous return to the heart — the exact opposite of what you want. This would worsen pulmonary congestion dramatically. Step 4 – Why NOT lateral position (Option B)? While used for unconscious patients, the lateral position does not optimize lung expansion or reduce preload as effectively. Step 5 – Why not Semi-Fowler's (Option D)? Semi-Fowler's is used for general respiratory comfort but does not achieve the maximum benefit of full upright positioning with dependent legs for acute pulmonary edema. NLE Memory Aid: For pulmonary edema — 'Sit them up, dry them out (furosemide), open them up (vasodilators).'
- 5easy
A patient develops sudden urticaria, stridor, wheezing, and hypotension immediately after receiving a penicillin injection. The nurse correctly identifies anaphylaxis. What is the FIRST and MOST priority drug to administer?
- A.Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV
- B.Hydrocortisone IV
- C.Epinephrine 0.3–0.5 mg IM (1:1000) in the anterolateral thigh
- D.Salbutamol nebulization
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Epinephrine 0.3–0.5 mg IM (1:1000) in the anterolateral thigh
Step 1 – Recognize anaphylaxis: The triad of airway compromise (stridor), breathing difficulty (wheeze), and circulatory collapse (hypotension) plus skin signs (urticaria) after an allergen exposure = classic anaphylaxis. Step 2 – Epinephrine is THE priority drug: It addresses all aspects of anaphylaxis simultaneously — it causes vasoconstriction (reverses hypotension), bronchodilation (relieves bronchospasm), and reduces mediator release from mast cells. Step 3 – Correct dose and route: 0.3–0.5 mg IM, using the 1:1000 concentration, injected into the anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis) for fastest absorption. IM thigh > IM deltoid in anaphylaxis. Step 4 – Why not antihistamine first (Option A)? Diphenhydramine only treats skin symptoms (urticaria). It cannot reverse airway swelling, bronchospasm, or circulatory collapse. It is an ADJUNCT, never the priority drug. Step 5 – Why not steroids first (Option B)? Corticosteroids take hours to work and are used to prevent a late-phase (biphasic) reaction. They do nothing for the immediate life-threatening crisis. Critical NLE Distinction: Anaphylaxis = 0.3–0.5 mg IM, 1:1000. Cardiac arrest = 1 mg IV, 1:10,000. Do NOT confuse these!
- 6easy
The nurse is preparing to administer epinephrine for a patient in anaphylactic shock. Which concentration and route is CORRECT for anaphylaxis (as opposed to cardiac arrest)?
- A.1 mg IV push, using the 1:10,000 concentration
- B.0.3–0.5 mg IM into the anterolateral thigh, using the 1:1000 concentration
- C.0.1 mg IV slow push, using the 1:1000 concentration
- D.1 mg IM into the deltoid, using the 1:10,000 concentration
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. 0.3–0.5 mg IM into the anterolateral thigh, using the 1:1000 concentration
Step 1 – Two contexts, two different epinephrine doses: This is one of the most high-yield distinctions for the NLE. Step 2 – Anaphylaxis dosing: 0.3–0.5 mg IM, using the 1:1000 (more concentrated) solution, injected into the anterolateral thigh (vastus lateralis). Can be repeated every 5–15 minutes. Step 3 – Cardiac arrest dosing: 1 mg IV push, using the 1:10,000 (more dilute) solution, administered during ACLS. Step 4 – Why the difference? In anaphylaxis the patient has a pulse and cardiac output; IM injection is effective and safer. In cardiac arrest, IV delivery is needed for immediate systemic effect during CPR. Step 5 – Why are the other options WRONG? Option A describes the cardiac arrest dose/route — dangerous if given in anaphylaxis. Options C and D mix up concentration and route incorrectly. NLE Memory Hook: Anaphylaxis = 1:1000 IM thigh. Arrest = 1:10,000 IV. '1000 for the thigh, 10,000 for the vein.'
- 7easy
A patient presents with a blood pressure of 200/120 mmHg, severe headache, confusion, and blurred vision. The nurse identifies this as a hypertensive emergency. What is the MOST important principle guiding blood pressure management in this situation?
- A.Reduce blood pressure as rapidly as possible to normal levels within 30 minutes.
- B.Lower blood pressure gradually, targeting no more than a 25% reduction in MAP in the first hour.
- C.Administer oral antihypertensives and reassess in 24–48 hours.
- D.Withhold all antihypertensives until a head CT scan is obtained.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. Lower blood pressure gradually, targeting no more than a 25% reduction in MAP in the first hour.
Step 1 – Understand hypertensive emergency: Severely elevated BP WITH evidence of acute target-organ damage (in this case, encephalopathy — headache, confusion, blurred vision) = hypertensive emergency requiring IV therapy. Step 2 – The key principle is GRADUAL reduction: The brain, heart, and kidneys have adapted to the chronically high pressure. Dropping the pressure too fast removes the perfusion pressure these organs depend on, potentially causing ischemic stroke, MI, or acute kidney injury. Step 3 – The target: Reduce MAP by no more than 25% in the first hour. IV agents used include labetalol, nicardipine, or sodium nitroprusside — all are titratable. Step 4 – Why NOT rapid reduction to normal (Option A)? Rapidly normalizing BP in a hypertensive emergency is dangerous and can trigger ischemic stroke or organ infarction. Step 5 – Why NOT oral agents and 24–48 hours (Option C)? That approach is for hypertensive URGENCY (high BP without organ damage), not emergency. Oral agents are too slow and uncontrollable in a true emergency. NLE Key: Hypertensive Emergency = IV drugs + GRADUAL reduction (≤25% MAP in 1st hour). Urgency = oral agents, 24–48 hours.
- 8easy
A patient is brought to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 185/115 mmHg. The nurse performs a thorough assessment and finds NO evidence of headache, visual changes, chest pain, or altered mental status. How is this condition BEST classified?
- A.Hypertensive emergency — requires immediate IV antihypertensive therapy.
- B.Hypertensive urgency — blood pressure should be lowered gradually over 24–48 hours with oral agents.
- C.Normal blood pressure variation — no treatment needed.
- D.Malignant hypertension — requires hospitalization and dialysis.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. Hypertensive urgency — blood pressure should be lowered gradually over 24–48 hours with oral agents.
Step 1 – Distinguish the two types of hypertensive crisis: • Hypertensive URGENCY = severely elevated BP (>180/120 mmHg) WITHOUT acute target-organ damage. • Hypertensive EMERGENCY = severely elevated BP WITH acute target-organ damage. Step 2 – Apply to this scenario: BP is 185/115 mmHg (severely elevated), but there is NO evidence of organ damage (no headache suggesting encephalopathy, no chest pain for MI/dissection, no visual changes). This is urgency. Step 3 – Management of urgency: Gradual oral BP reduction over 24–48 hours. There is no need for IV drips or ICU-level monitoring. Step 4 – Why NOT emergency (Option A)? Emergency requires EVIDENCE of target-organ damage. The absence of symptoms is the key distinguishing factor here. Step 5 – Why NOT normal (Option C)? A BP of 185/115 is significantly elevated and requires attention and treatment — it is not normal or a benign variation. NLE Key Word to Remember: 'Emergency' = End-organ damage present. 'Urgency' = No end-organ damage.
- 9easy
A patient is admitted with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, a rigid abdomen, and fever, and is scheduled for possible emergency surgery for suspected appendicitis. Which nursing intervention is MOST important to implement immediately?
- A.Apply a warm compress to the abdomen to relieve pain and muscle guarding.
- B.Administer a laxative or enema to relieve constipation contributing to the pain.
- C.Keep the patient NPO (nothing by mouth) and establish IV access for fluid administration.
- D.Encourage the patient to walk to stimulate bowel movement.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Keep the patient NPO (nothing by mouth) and establish IV access for fluid administration.
Step 1 – Understand acute abdomen priorities: Any patient with a suspected surgical emergency (appendicitis, perforation, bowel obstruction) must be prepared as if surgery is imminent. Step 2 – NPO is critical: The patient must not eat or drink because general anesthesia requires an empty stomach to prevent aspiration. IV fluids maintain hydration and IV access allows for medication administration. Step 3 – Why NOT heat (Option A)? Applying heat to an inflamed abdomen can cause vasodilation and increased inflammation, and in appendicitis can promote rupture of the appendix — absolutely contraindicated. Step 4 – Why NOT laxatives or enemas (Option B)? These are dangerous in suspected appendicitis or bowel obstruction. Increasing intestinal motility or pressure can rupture the inflamed appendix or worsen an obstruction — potentially fatal. Step 5 – Why NOT ambulation (Option D)? Asking a patient with a rigid, painful abdomen to walk is inappropriate and dangerous. Rest and monitoring are required. NLE Rule: For acute abdomen — NPO + IV fluids + monitor + prepare for surgery. NEVER apply heat or give laxatives/enemas.
- 10easy
A conscious diabetic patient reports shakiness, sweating, and confusion. The nurse checks the blood glucose and finds it is 55 mg/dL. The patient is alert enough to swallow safely. Which is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?
- A.Administer 25 g of D50W (50% dextrose) intravenously.
- B.Give the patient 15 grams of fast-acting oral carbohydrate and recheck glucose in 15 minutes.
- C.Administer glucagon 1 mg intramuscularly.
- D.Start a regular insulin infusion to stabilize blood glucose.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B. Give the patient 15 grams of fast-acting oral carbohydrate and recheck glucose in 15 minutes.
Step 1 – Identify the emergency: Blood glucose of 55 mg/dL is below the threshold of ~70 mg/dL — this is hypoglycemia. The brain is starved of glucose, causing the neurological and adrenergic symptoms. Step 2 – Apply the Rule of 15: For a CONSCIOUS patient who can swallow safely: Give 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate (glucose tablets, 4 oz juice, regular soda). Recheck glucose after 15 minutes. Repeat if still low. Once normalized, give a complex carbohydrate to prevent recurrence. Step 3 – Why NOT IV dextrose (Option A)? IV D50 is the correct treatment when the patient is UNCONSCIOUS or CANNOT swallow safely. For a conscious, swallowing-capable patient, oral carbs are simpler, equally effective, and safer. Step 4 – Why NOT glucagon (Option C)? Glucagon IM is also reserved for unconscious patients who cannot receive oral therapy or IV access. It is not the first-line for a conscious patient. Step 5 – Why NOT insulin (Option D)? Giving insulin to a hypoglycemic patient would drive blood glucose even LOWER and worsen the emergency — this is a dangerous, potentially fatal error. NLE Rule: Conscious + can swallow = oral carbs (Rule of 15). Unconscious or cannot swallow = IV dextrose or IM glucagon. NEVER give oral carbs to an unconscious patient (aspiration risk).
- 11easy
A patient arrives at the emergency department with an active airway obstruction. Under the three-tier triage system, which priority level should the nurse assign?
- A.Non-urgent (Priority 3)
- B.Urgent (Priority 2)
- C.Emergent (Priority 1)
- D.Delayed (Priority 4)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C. Emergent (Priority 1)
Step 1 – Identify the problem: Airway obstruction is an immediate threat to life. Step 2 – Apply triage definitions: Emergent (Priority 1) means an immediate threat to life or limb that requires care at once. Step 3 – Eliminate wrong options: Urgent (Priority 2) is for serious but not immediately life-threatening conditions. Non-urgent (Priority 3) is for stable, minor complaints. 'Delayed (Priority 4)' is not a category in the standard three-tier system; it belongs to START mass-casualty triage. Step 4 – Conclusion: Because airway obstruction can cause death within minutes, it is always Emergent Priority 1 — the patient is seen immediately.
- 12easy
During a mass-casualty incident, a victim is found apneic even after the nurse opens the airway. Using START triage, what color tag should be assigned?
- A.Red
- B.Yellow
- C.Green
- D.Black
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D. Black
Step 1 – Recall START triage logic: The goal is the greatest good for the greatest number; resources go to patients who can survive. Step 2 – Apply the rule: In START triage, if a victim does NOT breathe even after the airway is repositioned/opened, the tag is Black (expectant/deceased). Step 3 – Contrast with routine ED care: In the regular ED, a non-breathing patient would receive full resuscitation (CPR, intubation). In a mass-casualty event, this is reversed — a non-breathing patient after airway opening is tagged Black to allocate limited resources to salvageable victims. Step 4 – Eliminate distractors: Red = immediate but salvageable; Yellow = delayed; Green = minor or walking wounded. Step 5 – Conclusion: Black tag is correct.
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